1 Tim 2:15 - who does μείνωσιν refer to?

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1 Tim 2:15 - who does μείνωσιν refer to?

Postby Daniel Mehta » May 8th, 2012, 9:23 am

1 Tim 2:15: σωθήσεται δὲ διὰ τῆς τεκνογονίας, ἐὰν μείνωσιν ἐν πίστει καὶ ἀγάπῃ καὶ ἁγιασμῷ μετὰ σωφροσύνης.

In context:
9 ὡσαύτως καὶ γυναῖκας ἐν καταστολῇ κοσμίῳ μετὰ αἰδοῦς καὶ σωφροσύνης κοσμεῖν ἑαυτάς, μὴ ἐν πλέγμασιν καὶ χρυσῷ ἢ μαργαρίταις ἢ ἱματισμῷ πολυτελεῖ, 10 ἀλλ’ ὃ πρέπει γυναιξὶν ἐπαγγελλομέναις θεοσέβειαν, δι’ ἔργων ἀγαθῶν. 11 Γυνὴ ἐν ἡσυχίᾳ μανθανέτω ἐν πάσῃ ὑποταγῇ· 12 διδάσκειν δὲ γυναικὶ οὐκ ἐπιτρέπω, οὐδὲ αὐθεντεῖν ἀνδρός, ἀλλ’ εἶναι ἐν ἡσυχίᾳ. 13 Ἀδὰμ γὰρ πρῶτος ἐπλάσθη, εἶτα Εὔα· 14 καὶ Ἀδὰμ οὐκ ἠπατήθη, ἡ δὲ γυνὴ ἐξαπατηθεῖσα ἐν παραβάσει γέγονεν, 15 σωθήσεται δὲ διὰ τῆς τεκνογονίας, ἐὰν μείνωσιν ἐν πίστει καὶ ἀγάπῃ καὶ ἁγιασμῷ μετὰ σωφροσύνης.

I've spent considerable time trying to understand v15. It seems to me that the interpretation of the verse hinges on the identity of the implied plural subject of μείνωσιν. In v12-14 there is no plural subject which μείνωσιν can refer back to. Based on my limited knowledge of Greek, it seems that the plural subject must either refer
1) to Adam and Eve together (by implication, man and woman), or
2) to the implied children of τεκνογονίας in v15, or
3) all the way back to "women" (γυναιξὶν) in v9-10 [though it seems weird not to use the same sg subject as σωθήσεται to refer to women]

Which of the alternatives is best? Is there another alternative which is better? Or have I overlooked some other key factor necessary to understand the meaning of the verse?
Daniel Mehta
 
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Re: 1 Tim 2:15 - who does μείνωσιν refer to?

Postby cwconrad » May 8th, 2012, 11:50 am

Daniel Mehta wrote:1 Tim 2:15: σωθήσεται δὲ διὰ τῆς τεκνογονίας, ἐὰν μείνωσιν ἐν πίστει καὶ ἀγάπῃ καὶ ἁγιασμῷ μετὰ σωφροσύνης.

In context:
9 ὡσαύτως καὶ γυναῖκας ἐν καταστολῇ κοσμίῳ μετὰ αἰδοῦς καὶ σωφροσύνης κοσμεῖν ἑαυτάς, μὴ ἐν πλέγμασιν καὶ χρυσῷ ἢ μαργαρίταις ἢ ἱματισμῷ πολυτελεῖ, 10 ἀλλ’ ὃ πρέπει γυναιξὶν ἐπαγγελλομέναις θεοσέβειαν, δι’ ἔργων ἀγαθῶν. 11 Γυνὴ ἐν ἡσυχίᾳ μανθανέτω ἐν πάσῃ ὑποταγῇ· 12 διδάσκειν δὲ γυναικὶ οὐκ ἐπιτρέπω, οὐδὲ αὐθεντεῖν ἀνδρός, ἀλλ’ εἶναι ἐν ἡσυχίᾳ. 13 Ἀδὰμ γὰρ πρῶτος ἐπλάσθη, εἶτα Εὔα· 14 καὶ Ἀδὰμ οὐκ ἠπατήθη, ἡ δὲ γυνὴ ἐξαπατηθεῖσα ἐν παραβάσει γέγονεν, 15 σωθήσεται δὲ διὰ τῆς τεκνογονίας, ἐὰν μείνωσιν ἐν πίστει καὶ ἀγάπῃ καὶ ἁγιασμῷ μετὰ σωφροσύνης.

... Which of the alternatives is best? Is there another alternative which is better? Or have I overlooked some other key factor necessary to understand the meaning of the verse?


If you have not already looked at the NET "translator's note" on this verse, you may find it worth consulting. Six alternative understandings of this text are discussed there; whether any one of the six is likely seems a questionable proposition to me. If there is any Greek text in the NT corpus calling for obelization and the comment non liquet, this is it.
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
… ἐπειδὴ καὶ τὸν οἶνον ἠξίους
πίνειν, συνεκποτέ’ ἐστί σοι καὶ τὴν τρύγα Aristophanes, Plutus 1085
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Re: 1 Tim 2:15 - who does μείνωσιν refer to?

Postby Eeli Kaikkonen » May 8th, 2012, 2:09 pm

Maybe you could find something useful in http://bible.org/byverse/1%20tim%202:15 . Bible.org (the home of the NET translation) is complementarian.
Eeli Kaikkonen
 
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Re: 1 Tim 2:15 - who does μείνωσιν refer to?

Postby Daniel Mehta » May 11th, 2012, 7:22 am

Thanks, Bible.org's NET bible notes and literature archives really helped. I uncovered a myriad of material on this verse. Suffice to say, no one really knows the correct interpretation of the verse, but several (or two, by my count) good explanations exist. Awesome resources!
Daniel Mehta
 
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