1 Tim 2:15 - who does μείνωσιν refer to?
Posted: May 8th, 2012, 9:23 am
1 Tim 2:15: σωθήσεται δὲ διὰ τῆς τεκνογονίας, ἐὰν μείνωσιν ἐν πίστει καὶ ἀγάπῃ καὶ ἁγιασμῷ μετὰ σωφροσύνης.
In context:
9 ὡσαύτως καὶ γυναῖκας ἐν καταστολῇ κοσμίῳ μετὰ αἰδοῦς καὶ σωφροσύνης κοσμεῖν ἑαυτάς, μὴ ἐν πλέγμασιν καὶ χρυσῷ ἢ μαργαρίταις ἢ ἱματισμῷ πολυτελεῖ, 10 ἀλλ’ ὃ πρέπει γυναιξὶν ἐπαγγελλομέναις θεοσέβειαν, δι’ ἔργων ἀγαθῶν. 11 Γυνὴ ἐν ἡσυχίᾳ μανθανέτω ἐν πάσῃ ὑποταγῇ· 12 διδάσκειν δὲ γυναικὶ οὐκ ἐπιτρέπω, οὐδὲ αὐθεντεῖν ἀνδρός, ἀλλ’ εἶναι ἐν ἡσυχίᾳ. 13 Ἀδὰμ γὰρ πρῶτος ἐπλάσθη, εἶτα Εὔα· 14 καὶ Ἀδὰμ οὐκ ἠπατήθη, ἡ δὲ γυνὴ ἐξαπατηθεῖσα ἐν παραβάσει γέγονεν, 15 σωθήσεται δὲ διὰ τῆς τεκνογονίας, ἐὰν μείνωσιν ἐν πίστει καὶ ἀγάπῃ καὶ ἁγιασμῷ μετὰ σωφροσύνης.
I've spent considerable time trying to understand v15. It seems to me that the interpretation of the verse hinges on the identity of the implied plural subject of μείνωσιν. In v12-14 there is no plural subject which μείνωσιν can refer back to. Based on my limited knowledge of Greek, it seems that the plural subject must either refer
1) to Adam and Eve together (by implication, man and woman), or
2) to the implied children of τεκνογονίας in v15, or
3) all the way back to "women" (γυναιξὶν) in v9-10 [though it seems weird not to use the same sg subject as σωθήσεται to refer to women]
Which of the alternatives is best? Is there another alternative which is better? Or have I overlooked some other key factor necessary to understand the meaning of the verse?
In context:
9 ὡσαύτως καὶ γυναῖκας ἐν καταστολῇ κοσμίῳ μετὰ αἰδοῦς καὶ σωφροσύνης κοσμεῖν ἑαυτάς, μὴ ἐν πλέγμασιν καὶ χρυσῷ ἢ μαργαρίταις ἢ ἱματισμῷ πολυτελεῖ, 10 ἀλλ’ ὃ πρέπει γυναιξὶν ἐπαγγελλομέναις θεοσέβειαν, δι’ ἔργων ἀγαθῶν. 11 Γυνὴ ἐν ἡσυχίᾳ μανθανέτω ἐν πάσῃ ὑποταγῇ· 12 διδάσκειν δὲ γυναικὶ οὐκ ἐπιτρέπω, οὐδὲ αὐθεντεῖν ἀνδρός, ἀλλ’ εἶναι ἐν ἡσυχίᾳ. 13 Ἀδὰμ γὰρ πρῶτος ἐπλάσθη, εἶτα Εὔα· 14 καὶ Ἀδὰμ οὐκ ἠπατήθη, ἡ δὲ γυνὴ ἐξαπατηθεῖσα ἐν παραβάσει γέγονεν, 15 σωθήσεται δὲ διὰ τῆς τεκνογονίας, ἐὰν μείνωσιν ἐν πίστει καὶ ἀγάπῃ καὶ ἁγιασμῷ μετὰ σωφροσύνης.
I've spent considerable time trying to understand v15. It seems to me that the interpretation of the verse hinges on the identity of the implied plural subject of μείνωσιν. In v12-14 there is no plural subject which μείνωσιν can refer back to. Based on my limited knowledge of Greek, it seems that the plural subject must either refer
1) to Adam and Eve together (by implication, man and woman), or
2) to the implied children of τεκνογονίας in v15, or
3) all the way back to "women" (γυναιξὶν) in v9-10 [though it seems weird not to use the same sg subject as σωθήσεται to refer to women]
Which of the alternatives is best? Is there another alternative which is better? Or have I overlooked some other key factor necessary to understand the meaning of the verse?