When I read the Greek (not the English) of the first portion of 1 John namely ο ην απ αρχης ο ακηκοαμεν ο εωρακαμεν τοις οφθαλμοις ημων ο εθεασαμεθα και αι χειρες ημων εψηλαφησαν I see no structural problems. The First Relative pronoun is Nominative and the following relatives are accusative in apposition.
When We arrive at περι του λογου της ζωης we have three possible options
1.) Genitive apposition
2.) Attributive Genitive
3.) Objective Genitive
It appears as if scholars are divided over this. If it is an apposition it is still as clear as mud. If it is an attributive Genitive it would be speaking of the Christ but if it is an Objective Genitive it is words about life. (The Message itself)
This might be where our differences lie. I see it as number 3 as is the case with many scholars. If that is the case and I believe that it is, then it is not consistent with the preceding thought that John penned. You do not touch the Gospel message.
Even if it were a double entendre it would still be out of place here.
By the way, why is this in the beginner Greek area? Just curious.
John