Whether the original text included the word γάρ or not is a matter of debate. But if we consider the text including the word, what would be the sense? How to translate Philippians 2:5 with γάρ?
Thanks.
Stephen Carlson wrote:What's wrong with the usual sense of γάρ?
Eduardo Ortega wrote:But I'm not sure that the meaning could be "because you need to have this mind in you, which was also in Christ Jesus"
'5 Τοῦτο φρονεῖτε ἐν ὑμῖν ὃ καὶ ἐν Χριστῷ Ἰησοῦ,
Aland, B., Aland, K., Black, M., Martini, C. M., Metzger, B. M., & Wikgren, A. (1993). The Greek New Testament (4th ed.) (517). Federal Republic of Germany: United Bible Societies.
Τοῦτο γὰρ φρονείσθω ἐν ὑμῖν ὃ καὶ ἐν χριστῷ Ἰησοῦ·
The New Testament in the original Greek: Byzantine Textform 2005, with morphology. 2006. Bellingham, WA: Logos Bible Software.
Stephen Carlson wrote:Eduardo Ortega wrote:But I'm not sure that the meaning could be "because you need to have this mind in you, which was also in Christ Jesus"
How are you getting "you need to have this mind" from φρονεῖτε?
Eduardo Ortega wrote:By the way, the full text of the verse is Τοῦτο γὰρ φρονείσθω ἐν ὑμῖν ὃ καὶ ἐν χριστῷ Ἰησοῦ
Stephen Carlson wrote:Eduardo Ortega wrote:By the way, the full text of the verse is Τοῦτο γὰρ φρονείσθω ἐν ὑμῖν ὃ καὶ ἐν χριστῷ Ἰησοῦ
Thanks for quoting the full text (apparently from the Byzantine text). This text differs from the critical text in more than the conjunctive particle γάρ but also in the form of the verb.
I should have asked you to quote the text, because the issue is not merely the sense of the γάρ, but what it means in context with an imperative.
Danker's wonderful lexicon, BDAG, indicates that γάρ can have the sense of "yes, indeed" or "by all means," citing Heb 12:3, James 1:7, and 1 Pet 4:15. I would suggest that the Byzantine form of Phil 2:5 would fit this sense.
Return to What does this text mean?
Users browsing this forum: No registered users and 1 guest