Joe Rutherford wrote:I plan to get set up for unicode as soon as possible, but if I may for now try transliteration, I'd like to ask the following.
Joe Rutherford wrote:In Revelation 2:1, part of verse 1 reads: TO ANGELO TES EKKLESIAS EN EPHESO GRAPSON. The same construction occurs six more times total in Chapters 2 and 3, the only difference being the name of the town of each Church addressed. There are of course several ideals as to who the ANGELO of each EKKLESIAS is. I understand each angel simply to be John. Do you think that conclusion is even possible based soley upon the greek?
Ἀπελθόντων δὲ τῶν ἀγγέλων Ἰωάννου ἤρξατο λέγειν πρὸς τοὺς ὄχλους περὶ Ἰωάννου·
μνημόνευε οὖν πόθεν πέπτωκας καὶ μετανόησον καὶ τὰ πρῶτα ἔργα ποίησον· εἰ δὲ μή, ἔρχομαί σοι καὶ κινήσω τὴν λυχνίαν σου ἐκ τοῦ τόπου αὐτῆς, ἐὰν μὴ μετανοήσῃς.
Joe Rutherford wrote:Thanks for the tutorial guidance. I've just began to study a couple of basic greek grammers and the subject of basic sentence structure. I've also read the "things greek teachers will not tell you", posted at this site. One statement was that you need more than the greek, the greek can only limit possibilities. So in consideration of a statement of the text of Rev 2:1, does greek grammer absolutly rule out the possibility that John is the angel of each Church?
So the action of the statement is to write. Who is to write? John is to write. But God does not say, "John, write to the Church at...". Is John being told to write to an angel, or is John being identified as the angel to whom God is speaking, then (John) being ordered to write.
So I thought this might be a good exercise in exploring the possibilities of the greek grammar. Thanks again for the suggestions.
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