In working with calculations regarding the timing of the Resurrection, I believe it makes a difference whether Jesus rose during the night hours or the daylight hours of the Jewish civil day. I noticed the aorist participle "anateilantos" in Mark 16:2 contains useful data in determining this. I have had some Greek education but not nearly enough to be proficient, so I find an interlinear helpful. I was reading the NASB Interlinear Greek-English New Testament which uses the 21st edition of the Nestle Greek text. In Mark 16:2 Beza reads the present participle "anatellontos", but the variant is extremely doubtful and this edition of the Critical Text recognizes the aorist participle "anateilantos". There is a literal translation beneath it by Alfred Marshall, a British Greek scholar and tutor who also published a Greek primer. Mark 16:2 says the women arrived at the empty tomb "anateilantos the sun". Marshall translated this as "rising the sun" and adds a footnote which says "= as the sun rose". The King James Version of 1611 agrees with this when it says "at the rising of the sun", meaning that the women arrived at the tomb as the sun was crossing the horizon, not after it had already risen.
Many other translations, however, state that the women arrived after the sun had risen. The American Standard Version of 1901 reads "when the sun was risen". The New American Standard Bible reads "when the sun had risen", and the New King James Version agrees with this. Interestingly, going all the way back to John Wycliffe, he reads "And full early in one of the week days, they came to the sepulchre, when the sun was risen".
Can "anateilantos" here be translated either "rising" or "had risen" according to the preference of the translator, or is the correct reading now known to place the action after the participle? If so, why would Wycliffe have done that, but the later King James Translators and Marshall used "rising"? Thank you for any help.