Romans 2:12 ἀνόμως

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Daniel Gregg
Posts: 7
Joined: January 24th, 2013, 8:32 pm

Romans 2:12 ἀνόμως

Post by Daniel Gregg » January 29th, 2013, 12:10 pm

Ὅσοι γὰρ ἀνόμως ἥμαρτον, ἀνόμως καὶ ἀπολοῦνται

1. For however much-ones as-lawless sin, as-lawless also will be destroyed

First use: ἀνόμως = lawlessly, adv. or as-law-less (read backwards); those subjectively rejecting law.
May this describe the manner of the sin, connoting rejection of law or willful attitude?

Second use : ἀνόμως = adv. as-law-less
May this give a reason for judgment: because they are lawless, or as-lawless = status of being lawless.

2. ἐν νόμῳ ἥμαρτον = in law sin = those who subjectively keep withing the sphere of law, yet nevertheless sin.

I would like to keep this away from theology. I am aware of Lexicon's tendency to give English glosses that might not exactly fit the semantic range of Greek words, so we have BDAG, = lawlessly, an adverb. -ly describes the manner of an action after a verb, but so does as-law-less. We know that ως typically means as or like as a separate word.

If we gloss lawlessly concordantly: lawlessly sin, also will lawlessly be destroyed.....the second use does not make good sense
If we gloss as-lawless concordantly: as lawless sin, also as lawless will be destroyed....this now makes sense.

What I want to know here is aside from context issues and overall theology, is the as-lawless gloss within possibility at the clause level. A functional equivalent might be: because they are lawless, they will be destroyed: as-lawless will be destroyed In other words, the adverb is describing the persons as the implied subject and not the manner of destruction. to be destroyed lawlessly...might make sense if criminals were acting as the judge and executioner.

So is AS-LAWLESS will be destroyed / dynamic: because they are lawless/ a possible sense?

Note: I am following Friberg on the middle "be destroyed"

Jason Hare
Posts: 496
Joined: June 2nd, 2011, 5:28 pm
Location: Rehovot, Israel

Re: Romans 2:12 ἀνόμως

Post by Jason Hare » January 29th, 2013, 12:16 pm

I'd take it as "being without law," meaning that they had never received a law (like at Sinai) that was meant to keep them in line and obedient.
Jason A. Hare
Tel Aviv, Israel

Daniel Gregg
Posts: 7
Joined: January 24th, 2013, 8:32 pm

Re: Romans 2:12 ἀνόμως

Post by Daniel Gregg » January 29th, 2013, 12:21 pm

I know that is the usual way of taking it, but I am seeking to know if it is a required way of taking it. The question prior to interpretation is what is possible here. A perfect case is the subjective/objective debate over πίστεως Ἰησου, where I think both sides have admitted possibility....but that is my opinion then. The reason I ask the question is that the text suggests the possibility to me but I would like some further input.

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