ἶνJohn Brainard wrote:in 1 John 1:1 we read
ὃ ἦν ἀπ' ἀρχῆς, ὃ ἀκηκόαμεν (perfect), ὃ ἑωράκαμεν(perfect) τοῖς ὀφθαλμοῖς ἡμῶν, ὃ ἐθεασάμεθα(aorist) καὶ αἱ χεῖρες ἡμῶν ἐψηλάφησαν(aorist) περὶ τοῦ λόγου τῆς ζωῆς
What is the significance of the shift from the perfect to the aorist?
cwconrad wrote:I realize -- much to my embarrassment -- that I responded to a question that was not asked and ignored the question that was asked. I saw "shift from perfect to aorist" and immediately read it as "shift from imperfect to aorist." Stephen has amply responded to the question that actually was asked. I would only add to what he has said that the temporal distinction between aorist and perfect tenses in Koine is not as sharp as it was in earlier Greek; I think it's a mistake to endeavor to pinpoint the nuances between aorist and perfect verbs over nicely.
Users browsing this forum: Yahoo [Bot] and 1 guest