ζῳοποιηθήσονται in 1Corinthians 15
Posted: April 15th, 2013, 12:10 pm
Greetings,
Should you continue to read on you will find basic two questions regarding 1 Corinthians chapter 15:22-23.
1Co 15:22 ὥσπερ γὰρ ἐν τῷ Ἀδὰμ πάντες ἀποθνῄσκουσιν, οὕτως καὶ ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ πάντες ζῳοποιηθήσονται. :23 Ἕκαστος δὲ ἐν τῷ ἰδίῳ τάγματι• ἀπαρχὴ Χριστός, ἔπειτα οἱ τοῦ Χριστοῦ ἐν τῇ παρουσίᾳ αὐτοῦ,
1) Is there anything inherent within ζῳοποιηθήσονται that suggests when this future action was/is to commence? In other words, does ζῳοποιηθήσονται somehow point to “when”? Does it point to a time future to the writing of 1 Corinthians? Could it refer to a time prior to the resurrection of Christ? Or, to a time after the resurrection of Christ and before the writing of 1 Corinthians? If the commencement cannot be inherently derived from ζῳοποιηθήσονται then from where?
2) Why would it be inappropriate to let both ἀπαρχὴ and Χριστός stand as nouns, separate and distinct from one another? This would allow for each ἀπαρχὴ and Χριστός having uniqueness in their respective ἰδίῳ τάγματι. Thus, if verse 23 were to be punctuated there would be a semicolon after τάγματι, a comma after ἀπαρχὴ, Χριστός and αὐτοῦ. This would mean that ζῳοποιηθήσονται acts through Ἕκαστος δὲ ἐν τῷ ἰδίῳ τάγματι, which τάγματι is comprised of at least three components/orders: ἀπαρχὴ, Χριστός, ἔπειτα οἱ τοῦ Χριστοῦ ἐν τῇ παρουσίᾳ αὐτοῦ,. This approach would seem to most closely follow the text. If not, why not?
Thank you for your time, comments and insights.
Élan
Should you continue to read on you will find basic two questions regarding 1 Corinthians chapter 15:22-23.
1Co 15:22 ὥσπερ γὰρ ἐν τῷ Ἀδὰμ πάντες ἀποθνῄσκουσιν, οὕτως καὶ ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ πάντες ζῳοποιηθήσονται. :23 Ἕκαστος δὲ ἐν τῷ ἰδίῳ τάγματι• ἀπαρχὴ Χριστός, ἔπειτα οἱ τοῦ Χριστοῦ ἐν τῇ παρουσίᾳ αὐτοῦ,
1) Is there anything inherent within ζῳοποιηθήσονται that suggests when this future action was/is to commence? In other words, does ζῳοποιηθήσονται somehow point to “when”? Does it point to a time future to the writing of 1 Corinthians? Could it refer to a time prior to the resurrection of Christ? Or, to a time after the resurrection of Christ and before the writing of 1 Corinthians? If the commencement cannot be inherently derived from ζῳοποιηθήσονται then from where?
2) Why would it be inappropriate to let both ἀπαρχὴ and Χριστός stand as nouns, separate and distinct from one another? This would allow for each ἀπαρχὴ and Χριστός having uniqueness in their respective ἰδίῳ τάγματι. Thus, if verse 23 were to be punctuated there would be a semicolon after τάγματι, a comma after ἀπαρχὴ, Χριστός and αὐτοῦ. This would mean that ζῳοποιηθήσονται acts through Ἕκαστος δὲ ἐν τῷ ἰδίῳ τάγματι, which τάγματι is comprised of at least three components/orders: ἀπαρχὴ, Χριστός, ἔπειτα οἱ τοῦ Χριστοῦ ἐν τῇ παρουσίᾳ αὐτοῦ,. This approach would seem to most closely follow the text. If not, why not?
Thank you for your time, comments and insights.
Élan