ζῳοποιηθήσονται in 1Corinthians 15

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Scott Lawson
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Re: ζῳοποιηθήσονται in 1Corinthians 15

Post by Scott Lawson » April 29th, 2013, 1:24 pm

Larry, I'm kicking around the thought that Paul is alluding to a Triumphal Procession, or at least the last three participants in the procession.

10. The Imperator in a glorified/exalted condition.
11. The relatives of the Imperator.
12.His military forces.

An interesting contrast to the Triumph is an Ovation. It is a victory of a lesser enemy that didn't lead to great bloodshed opposed to a victory in a long and bloody war.

The three would be, Jesus first (ἀπαρχὴ), afterward (έπειτα) those who belong to Jesus and then (εἴτα) the greater population at (τὸ τέλος) the end who were caught up in the war against the last enemy, death. Though it may only be the first two groups with the greater population of the dead only being alluded to in verse 20 as those "who have fallen asleep [in death]" with Jesus being the first to be raised from that group and then, those who belong to him/in union with him out of that group and then the rest of that group unspoken of but conspicuous by their absence in Paul's following comments. This last may be the more probable because I'm not sure how to take up reading the text after τὸ τέλος if it is referring to the end group of the procession because τὸ τέλος seems to be clearly connected to ὅταν παραδιδῶ τὴν βασιλεύειν.
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Larry Wise
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Re: ζῳοποιηθήσονται in 1Corinthians 15

Post by Larry Wise » April 29th, 2013, 2:32 pm

Scott Lawson wrote:
Larry Wise wrote:
Larry Wise wrote:
Why should Paul include Christ in a group that “shall be” zOopoieO?
Stephen Carlson wrote: But does he? Is Christ included in this clause: οὕτως καὶ ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ πάντες ζῳοποιηθήσονται?
Larry Wise wrote:Hello Stephen,

A nice two-edged question. Yes, the word Χριστῷ is right there in the clause, plain as day. Does this usage of Χριστῷ reflect directly to the person of Christ Jesus? – is probably more accurately what the question in my mind is.
I think my question has to do with whether Christ himself is included among the πάντες. As he participates elsewhere in the clause (there\s no other way I can understand ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ, I tend to doubt. All doesn't really mean everyone in the whole universe but rather all of the relevant group, which can be contextually supplied. (A possible candidate is the later specified/clarified οἱ τοῦ Χριστοῦ.)
Larry, the way I understand it, the simple subject of the clause in question is the they of ζῳοποιηθήσονται (they will be made alive) and the simple predicate is the assertion of the finite verb (they will be made alive). The complete subject of the clause includes the prepositional phrase ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ πάντες. So, the prepositional phrase ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ excludes Christ from ζῳοποιηθήσονται as you have already concluded since Christ is not the subject of the clause but rather those who are ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ (in Christ) are:
Larry Wise wrote:Why should Paul include Christ in a group that “shall be” zOopoieO? This makes little sense to me. Christ is clearly identified as ἐγήγερται in I Corinthians 15:20. He (Christ) is also identified as ἐκ νεκρῶν ἀπαρχὴ τῶν κεκοιμημένων. He is “raised” and He is “first fruit of those that are sleeping”.
Hello Scott,

This is most helpful. Accepting as accurate your analysis: “…. the simple subject of the clause in question is the they of ζῳοποιηθήσονται (they will be made alive) and the simple predicate is the assertion of the finite verb (they will be made alive). The complete subject of the clause includes the prepositional phrase ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ πάντες. So, the prepositional phrase ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ excludes Christ from ζῳοποιηθήσονται ….. since Christ is not the subject of the clause but rather those who are ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ (in Christ) are.”

Regarding the first main question of this tread:
I am how perceiving that ζῳοποιηθήσονται is a reference to occurrences “in Christ”, particularly after Jesus Christ rose. However, the commencement of the first “τάγμα” is not so clear. Soooooo, if the first “τάγμα” commenced after Jesus Christ was raised as “firstfruit of them who are sleeping” (verse 20) AND had the ζῳοποιηθήσονται of the first “τάγμα” not been completed at the time Paul wrote 1 Corinthians 15, then would Paul’s use of the future tense (ζῳοποιηθήσονται) have been grammatically correct?

In order to partake of any ζῳοποιηθήσονται two conditions must be realized. First is the inclusion “in Christ” (which meaning is not of import in order to address the question), which begins after the resurrection of Jesus Christ and inclusion in a “τάγμα”. Paul’s use of “in Christ” is virtually impossible to define, except that it is assumed “good” to be “in Christ” and it is probably exclusive by comparison to those not “in Christ.”

~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
Regarding the second main question of this tread:
For a few moments it might be easiest to ignore the particulars of these two nouns as ἀπαρχὴ and Χριστός and replace with any other two nouns to determine how to generally handle the two nouns next to each other, as they are in verse 23. I realize this type of reasoning is wrought with fallacious potential, but it may reveal some unacceptable options. By the same token the nouns, in and of themselves, should not modify the action they receive, nor the nature of the adjacent noun.

From other sequential uses of two nouns (one nominative, feminine, singular next to a nominative, masculine, singular) in Pauline writings (1C 15:23, 2C12:20, Ga 5:20, Ep 4:15, 1Ti 1:2 and 2Ti 1:2) I find that each noun stands separate, as in a grocery list. An exception being in Ephesians 4:15 (ἀληθεύοντες δὲ ἐν ἀγάπῃ αὐξήσωμεν εἰς αὐτὸν τὰ πάντα, ὅς ἐστιν ἡ κεφαλή, Χριστός). Ephesians 4:15 might be resolved to examining the verse break point. Some of verse 16 needs to come to verse 15 or vice versa.

Back to the nouns at hand in 1 Corinthians 15:23. We are in the presence of “ἰδίῳ” and “τάγμα”, giving some credence to the suggestion that an orderly list makes “sense”. The first “τάγμα” “ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ” to partake of ζῳοποιηθήσονται is referred to as “ἀπαρχὴ“, the second “τάγμα” “ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ” to partake of ζῳοποιηθήσονται is referred to as “Χριστός”, and a third “τάγμα” “ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ” to partake of ζῳοποιηθήσονται is referred in the phrase “ἔπειτα οἱ τοῦ Χριστοῦ ἐν τῇ παρουσίᾳ αὐτου”. Paul’s use of “ἰδίῳ” seems to draw attention to the uniqueness of each “τάγμα”.

Who, or what, makes up each of the first and second “τάγμα”? Touching on the second, “Χριστός”, first. Since “Χριστός”, as Jesus the Christ, is not, as you have pointed out, included in the “ζῳοποιηθήσονται,” then “Χριστός” could be understood as “anointed”, which is well within the meaning of the word. Anointed simply removes the “proper” noun aspect of “Χριστός”.

Now, touching on the first “τάγμα”, “ἀπαρχὴ”. Earlier, in another posting on this tread, you offered:
Scott Lawson wrote:BDAG says of ἀπαρχὴ at 1 Cor 15:20,23: The orig. mng. is greatly weakened so that ἀπαρχὴ becomes almost = πρῶτος; of Christ the first of those who have fallen asleep..."
This approach is plausible, though admittedly, I do not find such degradation in the Greek text I have at my disposal, nor have I discovered any variant Greek renderings for ”ἀπαρχὴ” in this verse. Next, this is definitely a slick way to “convert” a noun to an adjective, which can then be used to modify “Χριστός”. But such conversion is needed to accomplish what? To keep “Χριστός” as a proper noun?

It would be more acceptable if it where discovered that there is no adjective form of ”ἀπαρχὴ” in the Greek and Paul was “forced” to use ”ἀπαρχὴ” as a noun even though an adjective was needed. I do not know if such a form even exists. You?

Tentative conclusion: In 1 Corinthians 15:22-23 there are three “τάγμα” “ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ” to participate in “ζῳοποιηθήσονται”, these all being after Jesus Christ experienced His rising from among the dead. Frist τάγμα is “firstfruit”, second τάγμα is “anointed” and third τάγμα is “ἔπειτα οἱ τοῦ Χριστοῦ ἐν τῇ παρουσίᾳ αὐτου”.

There are couple more questions herein that will hopefully catch your attention and elicit a response. Thank you for persisting through this convoluted thread of thinking and providing assistance, your comments are appreciated.
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Larry Wise

Larry Wise
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Re: ζῳοποιηθήσονται in 1Corinthians 15

Post by Larry Wise » April 29th, 2013, 4:11 pm

Scott Lawson wrote:Larry, I'm kicking around the thought that Paul is alluding to a Triumphal Procession, or at least the last three participants in the procession.

10. The Imperator in a glorified/exalted condition.
11. The relatives of the Imperator.
12.His military forces.

An interesting contrast to the Triumph is an Ovation. It is a victory of a lesser enemy that didn't lead to great bloodshed opposed to a victory in a long and bloody war.

The three would be, Jesus first (ἀπαρχὴ), afterward (έπειτα) those who belong to Jesus and then (εἴτα) the greater population at (τὸ τέλος) the end who were caught up in the war against the last enemy, death. Though it may only be the first two groups with the greater population of the dead only being alluded to in verse 20 as those "who have fallen asleep [in death]" with Jesus being the first to be raised from that group and then, those who belong to him/in union with him out of that group and then the rest of that group unspoken of but conspicuous by their absence in Paul's following comments. This last may be the more probable because I'm not sure how to take up reading the text after τὸ τέλος if it is referring to the end group of the procession because τὸ τέλος seems to be clearly connected to ὅταν παραδιδῶ τὴν βασιλεύειν.
Hi Scott,

How He pulls together all that gets pulled together is a marvelous unfolding.

How to factor in τὸ τέλος is a challenge in regards to ζῳοποιηθήσονται. As long as τὸ τέλος is restricted to ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ then it seems to flow with the context of scripture that there is other “τάγμα” in/during τὸ τέλος. While you offer three groups, we seem to be tinkering with three or four groups thus far in the thread. Three if τὸ τέλος is excluded, four if included, AND Jesus in not considered as part of any of these three or four groups – He in wholly distinct.

The adverbs έπειτα and εἴτα offer some potential timing and sequencing for events, but their implications remain vague to my thinking.

Would also like to be clear that “zOopoieO” does not imply a physical, bodily resurrection is accompanying, such is not the case. One is not dependent on the other, though they may occur in close proximity to one another. Lazarus was raised from the dead without indication of “zOopoieO”. If he were “zOopoieO” I would factor it as a result not of his resurrection, but as a result of His (Christ Jesus) resurrection. Lazarus’ “τάγμα” is among the “ἀπαρχ” of 1 Corinthians 15:23 - this is quite possible I suppose. If Lazarus is counted as “zOopoieO” I suppose it best found in Romans 8:23 (ἀπαρχὴν τοῦ πνεύματος) as with many others as well.

I might be so bold as to suggest that it is by “zOopoieO” that position ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ is realized.
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