Greg, you gave a good explanation of the distinction between the English prepositions, but I don't get what you are saying here. Firstly your last phrase should have been "δια του πατρος αυτου" for it to be grammatical. Also, the context implies that Rom 11:36 is referring to God, the father. If so, it doesn't make sense to say "his father" at all.Greg Johnston wrote:c) Romans
Here, then, we could say he both conceived of and created all things for himself. It would also be very (grammatically) possible to say that all things were εξ αυτου but δι του πατηρ αυτου or something, but that's not what the text happens to say.
Romans 11:36
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Re: Romans 11:36
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Re: Romans 11:36
My exegetical rule of thumb is that when a Biblical author coordinates expressions, it generally more important to look at what they have in common than what makes them different. To put if in set-theoretical terms, look most carefully at the intersection in the Venn diagram, not the union (or, even worse, the symmetric difference).Mike Burke wrote:What is the distinction between "of Him" (ex autou) and "through Him" (di' autou) in Romans 11:36?
Stephen C. Carlson, Ph.D.
Melbourne, Australia
Melbourne, Australia