John 16.26b: “καὶ οὐ λέγω ὑμῖν ὅτι ἐγὼ ἐρωτήσω τὸν πατέρα περὶ ὑμῶν·”
Posted: May 29th, 2025, 3:57 am
I made the following query in a reply to a reply to an original post, but it seems to have gotten lost in the chain of replies. So I'll try posting it as a new topic.
My question is about John 16.26b: “καὶ οὐ λέγω ὑμῖν ὅτι ἐγὼ ἐρωτήσω τὸν πατέρα περὶ ὑμῶν·”
James Stinti confirmed my suspicion that "ἐγὼ" is emphatic, but where does that take us as far as translating this phrase goes?
Some commentators say that the sense is something like: “it goes without saying that I’ll pray the father for you.” However, placing a special emphasis on “ἐγὼ” doesn’t seem to me to favor that interpretation.
Other commentators feel that Jesus is saying that there will be no need for him to intercede for the disciples. As they ask in his name (in communion with his spirit) they can address the Father directly, and the Father will listen and answer because “He himself loves them” (v.27). In this case, the translation might go something like this: “and you won’t need me to pray the Father for you” or even “and I won’t be praying the Father for you”.
Are both of these interpretations possible? Is one preferable? Are there other possibilities?
Thanks for any help,
Thomas
My question is about John 16.26b: “καὶ οὐ λέγω ὑμῖν ὅτι ἐγὼ ἐρωτήσω τὸν πατέρα περὶ ὑμῶν·”
James Stinti confirmed my suspicion that "ἐγὼ" is emphatic, but where does that take us as far as translating this phrase goes?
Some commentators say that the sense is something like: “it goes without saying that I’ll pray the father for you.” However, placing a special emphasis on “ἐγὼ” doesn’t seem to me to favor that interpretation.
Other commentators feel that Jesus is saying that there will be no need for him to intercede for the disciples. As they ask in his name (in communion with his spirit) they can address the Father directly, and the Father will listen and answer because “He himself loves them” (v.27). In this case, the translation might go something like this: “and you won’t need me to pray the Father for you” or even “and I won’t be praying the Father for you”.
Are both of these interpretations possible? Is one preferable? Are there other possibilities?
Thanks for any help,
Thomas