Hello guys,
I have one question. Please tell me if there is a significant reason why John uses two different words for send in John 20:21?
John 20:21b says:
"[...]καθὼς ἀπέσταλκέν με ὁ πατήρ, κἀγὼ πέμπω ὑμᾶς."
I know that some Greek scholars say, that they are used interchangeably here. I also know at least some people believes there is a ‘significant distinction’ between this words. They say that first is used of the Father sending the Son and concentrates on the mission to be accomplished and the authority imparted to whom was sent and the second is used of Jesus sending the disciples which focuses more on the relation of the sent to the sender.
I was wondering what you all think.
Best regards!
John 20:21 -- ἀποστέλλω vs πέμπω
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Re: John 20:21 -- ἀποστέλλω vs πέμπω
Welcome to B-Greek! To be able to post, please set your user name - see instructions here:
https://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek/forum/vi ... ?f=38&t=90
https://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek/forum/vi ... ?f=38&t=90
ἐξίσταντο δὲ πάντες καὶ διηποροῦντο, ἄλλος πρὸς ἄλλον λέγοντες, τί θέλει τοῦτο εἶναι;
http://jonathanrobie.biblicalhumanities.org/
http://jonathanrobie.biblicalhumanities.org/
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Re: John 20:21 -- ἀποστέλλω vs πέμπω
There was an earlier discussion of this same question here:
http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek/forum/vie ... =40&t=1441
http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek/forum/vie ... =40&t=1441
ἐξίσταντο δὲ πάντες καὶ διηποροῦντο, ἄλλος πρὸς ἄλλον λέγοντες, τί θέλει τοῦτο εἶναι;
http://jonathanrobie.biblicalhumanities.org/
http://jonathanrobie.biblicalhumanities.org/