John 1:29

How do I work out the meaning of a Greek text? How can I best understand the forms and vocabulary in this particular text?
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Thomas Sandberg
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Joined: December 8th, 2016, 12:49 pm
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John 1:29

Post by Thomas Sandberg »

Τῇ ἐπαύριον βλέπει ὁ Ἰωάννης τὸν Ἰησοῦν ἐρχόμενον πρὸς αὐτόν, καὶ λέγει· Ἴδε ὁ ἀμνὸς τοῦ Θεοῦ ὁ αἴρων τὴν ἁμαρτίαν τοῦ κόσμου. (PT 1904)

Regarding βλέπει (PAI-3S) and λέγει (PAI-3S). In the RSV and NKJV these are translated as the English past tense "saw" and "said;" whereas the KJV translates them (correctly?) as "seeth" (English: Simple PI-3S of "see") and "saith" (English: Simple PI-3S of "say"). I haven't found any grammar rule for Greek or English as to why. Any help?
Fr. Thomas Sandberg, B.Th.(Hons.)
Greek Orthodox Archdiocese of Canada
thomassandberg.ca
<<μὴ μέταιρε ὅρια αἰώνια, ἃ ἔθεντο οἱ πατέρες σου.>>
-Παροιμίαι ΚΒʹ:28
Robert Emil Berge
Posts: 63
Joined: August 24th, 2016, 1:34 pm

Re: John 1:29

Post by Robert Emil Berge »

The use of the historical present is very common in Greek. It sometimes works in English as well, but is often better translated into the past tense.
Robert Emil Berge
Posts: 63
Joined: August 24th, 2016, 1:34 pm

Re: John 1:29

Post by Robert Emil Berge »

Thomas Sandberg
Posts: 11
Joined: December 8th, 2016, 12:49 pm
Location: Treaty 1 Territory
Contact:

Re: John 1:29

Post by Thomas Sandberg »

Εὐχαριστῶ.
Fr. Thomas Sandberg, B.Th.(Hons.)
Greek Orthodox Archdiocese of Canada
thomassandberg.ca
<<μὴ μέταιρε ὅρια αἰώνια, ἃ ἔθεντο οἱ πατέρες σου.>>
-Παροιμίαι ΚΒʹ:28
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