How do I work out the meaning of a Greek text? How can I best understand the forms and vocabulary in this particular text?
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Stirling Bartholomew wrote: ↑
November 4th, 2017, 2:45 pm
I took a fresh look at the rules on page 79, it looks like rule #2 is the one
Yes, indeed. If
Danove is correct in his analysis of the larger patterns of usage, this provides an answer to the original poster's question.
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In a much less technical
publication Robert M. Bowman Jr. addresses the distinction between ἀκούω with the genitive and accusative. The discussion cites various contemporary new testament scholars as well as quoting from the standard grammars Robertson, Moulton, Winer and others. Fast forward to Page 9
. This article it Is generally off-topic (apologetics) but contains some useful citations from standard grammatical reference works.
 Did They Hear What Paul Heard? Acts 9:7 and 22:9 Revisited
Robert M. Bowman Jr., pp. 9ff.
A slightly misquoted portion from A.T. Robertson p506,
Fading Distinction from Accusative. But it must not be assumed that it is wholly a matter of indifference whether the accusative or the genitive is used with a verb, though the accusative in the later Greek constantly made inroads on the genitive. Even in the old Greek much freedom existed…. But it is perfectly proper to appeal to the distinction in the cases in the apparent contradiction between ἀκούοντες μὲν τῆς φωνῆς (Ac. 9:7) and τὴν δὲ φωνὴν οὐκ ἤκουσαν (22:9). The accusative (case of extent) accents the intellectual apprehension of the sound, while the genitive (specifying case) calls attention to the sound of the voice without accenting the sense. The word ἀκούω itself has two senses which fall in well with this case-distinction, one ‘to hear,’ the other ‘to understand.’ Cf. οὗ οὐκ ἤκουσαν (Ro. 10:14) and μὴ οὐκ ἤκουσαν (Ro. 10:18). And yet the genitive can be used where the sense is meant, though not stressed, as ἤκουσα φωνῆς (Ac. 22:7), but ἤκουσεν φωνήν (Ac. 9:4; and 26:14).
C. Stirling Bartholomew
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