In that Day
Posted: April 6th, 2018, 11:30 pm
In English we may say, "I can't wait to go to the beach, because I'm going to swim." Or we may say (although rare) "I can't wait to go to the beach, on that day I'm going to swim." However, we would never say, "I can't wait to go to the beach, in that day I'm going to swim."
So why do some modern translations that speak of a singular future day still use the phrase "in that day?" Is it simply keeping the KJV tradition or for some other reason? It seems like this could be confusing to readers because it almost seems like they are inferring a span of time, whereas it is just one singular day.
For instance, Luke 10:12 NASB has "in that day" for the phrase “ἐν τῇ ἡμέρᾳ ἐκείνῃ”
Some translations like the HCSB translate it as "on that day."
But it seems like translations are inconsistent on how it is translated.
For instance in 2 Thessalonians 1:10 the exact same phrase “ἐν τῇ ἡμέρᾳ ἐκείνῃ”
NASB translates "on that day" and HCSB "in that day", a reverse of both!
Is there any other reason for this, other than KJV tradition? Any insights on this?
Thanks,
Seth Knorr
So why do some modern translations that speak of a singular future day still use the phrase "in that day?" Is it simply keeping the KJV tradition or for some other reason? It seems like this could be confusing to readers because it almost seems like they are inferring a span of time, whereas it is just one singular day.
For instance, Luke 10:12 NASB has "in that day" for the phrase “ἐν τῇ ἡμέρᾳ ἐκείνῃ”
Some translations like the HCSB translate it as "on that day."
But it seems like translations are inconsistent on how it is translated.
For instance in 2 Thessalonians 1:10 the exact same phrase “ἐν τῇ ἡμέρᾳ ἐκείνῃ”
NASB translates "on that day" and HCSB "in that day", a reverse of both!
Is there any other reason for this, other than KJV tradition? Any insights on this?
Thanks,
Seth Knorr