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In Romans 11:15 who is doing the refusing/accepting?

Posted: March 9th, 2019, 10:13 am
by Bill Ross
I've always read this as God refusing/accepting the Jews but it suddenly occurred to me that it might refer to the Jews refusing/accepting the gospel:
Romans 11:15 εἰ γὰρ ἡ ἀποβολὴ αὐτῶν καταλλαγὴ κόσμου τίς ἡ πρόσλημψις εἰ μὴ ζωὴ ἐκ νεκρῶν
Which is the correct reading/understanding?

Note:

If you want more context, I'm working on resolving the following questions on another site:

https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/ ... loss-is-it

https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/ ... er-for-the

Re: In Romans 11:15 who is doing the refusing/accepting?

Posted: March 9th, 2019, 4:39 pm
by timothy_p_mcmahon
I think your sudden realization is correct, but I don't think it's a Greek issue.

Re: In Romans 11:15 who is doing the refusing/accepting?

Posted: March 9th, 2019, 4:45 pm
by Bill Ross
timothy_p_mcmahon wrote:
March 9th, 2019, 4:39 pm
I think your sudden realization is correct, but I don't think it's a Greek issue.
Thank you. My concern is mostly the "αὐτῶν", whether the combination with a noun results in "their refusing" or "their being refused". Which is the normal koine usage?

Re: In Romans 11:15 who is doing the refusing/accepting?

Posted: March 9th, 2019, 5:35 pm
by MAubrey
Bill Ross wrote:
March 9th, 2019, 4:45 pm
timothy_p_mcmahon wrote:
March 9th, 2019, 4:39 pm
I think your sudden realization is correct, but I don't think it's a Greek issue.
Thank you. My concern is mostly the "αὐτῶν", whether the combination with a noun results in "their refusing" or "their being refused". Which is the normal koine usage?
I'm afraid that, here, there is no normal usage, just a grammatical ambiguity.