In 1 John 4:8 what is the role of ἐστίν?
Posted: August 2nd, 2019, 11:25 am
This question arose here: https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/ ... r-god-is-l
While I have an intuitive sense of what this might mean I am wondering how it would be explained using a proper linguistic analysis:
[1Jo 4:8 MGNT] (8) ὁ μὴ ἀγαπῶν οὐκ ἔγνω τὸν θεόν ὅτι ὁ θεὸς ἀγάπη [b]ἐστίν[/b]
While I have an intuitive sense of what this might mean I am wondering how it would be explained using a proper linguistic analysis:
[1Jo 4:8 MGNT] (8) ὁ μὴ ἀγαπῶν οὐκ ἔγνω τὸν θεόν ὅτι ὁ θεὸς ἀγάπη [b]ἐστίν[/b]