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Why is βοῶντος in the genitive in John 1:23?
Posted: January 4th, 2024, 4:55 pm
by rwatson
Why is βοῶντος in the genitive in John 1:23?
I'm recently returning to Greek after a few years of letting it sit idly.
I feel as though I should know the answer to this question, but I can't remember and can't find it in my resources.
Thanks!
Re: Why is βοῶντος in the genitive in John 1:23?
Posted: January 5th, 2024, 4:50 pm
by Jason Hare
rwatson wrote: ↑January 4th, 2024, 4:55 pm
Why is βοῶντος in the genitive in John 1:23?
I'm recently returning to Greek after a few years of letting it sit idly.
I feel as though I should know the answer to this question, but I can't remember and can't find it in my resources.
Thanks!
It’s always a politeness to other users to quote the verse when you ask about it. In this case, taken from the NA28:
ἔφη· Ἐγὼ φωνὴ βοῶντος ἐν τῇ ἐρήμῳ· Εὐθύνατε τὴν ὁδὸν κυρίου, καθὼς εἶπεν Ἠσαΐας ὁ προφήτης.
The word βοῶντος is functioning here as a substantive—a person crying out. John says, “I am the voice of someone crying out in the desert.” It is not that the voice is crying out, but that a person is crying out. This is why it is in the genitive.
By the way, we cannot really know what to call you. You need to put your first and last name in the signature of your user profile so that we know who you are. We have a policy against anonymous posting. Welcome to B-Greek!
Re: Why is βοῶντος in the genitive in John 1:23?
Posted: January 7th, 2024, 9:35 pm
by Stephen Carlson
How many indefinite substantivized participles are there in the NT? It feels pretty infrequent (triggering the OP's question).
Re: Why is βοῶντος in the genitive in John 1:23?
Posted: January 9th, 2024, 7:33 am
by Jason Hare
Stephen Carlson wrote: ↑January 7th, 2024, 9:35 pm
How many indefinite substantivized participles are there in the NT? It feels pretty infrequent (triggering the OP's question).
I don’t really have statistics, but it is a normal usage of the participle. Should be covered by any introductory grammar.