Complements in Mark 8:36
Posted: August 3rd, 2011, 2:52 pm
Mark 8:36
τί γὰρ ὠφελεῖ ἄνθρωπον κερδῆσαι τὸν κόσμον ὅλον καὶ ζημιωθῆναι τὴν ψυχὴν αὐτοῦ;
My question here is more about the proper way to articulate the grammar of this sentence, particularly the complements of ὠφελεῖ.
Both ἄνθρωπον and κερδῆσαι τὸν κόσμον ὅλον καὶ ζημιωθῆναι τὴν ψυχὴν αὐτοῦ are complements of ὠφελεῖ. Can one say they are both "objects" of ὠφελεῖ?
I trust it is incorrect to say that there is a compound direct object here. There is no conjunction.
Another part of me wants to call κερδῆσαι and ζημιωθῆναι adverbial infinitives and not think of them as complements at all.
So....what is the correct terminology to adopt here in describing/teaching this?
τί γὰρ ὠφελεῖ ἄνθρωπον κερδῆσαι τὸν κόσμον ὅλον καὶ ζημιωθῆναι τὴν ψυχὴν αὐτοῦ;
My question here is more about the proper way to articulate the grammar of this sentence, particularly the complements of ὠφελεῖ.
Both ἄνθρωπον and κερδῆσαι τὸν κόσμον ὅλον καὶ ζημιωθῆναι τὴν ψυχὴν αὐτοῦ are complements of ὠφελεῖ. Can one say they are both "objects" of ὠφελεῖ?
I trust it is incorrect to say that there is a compound direct object here. There is no conjunction.
Another part of me wants to call κερδῆσαι and ζημιωθῆναι adverbial infinitives and not think of them as complements at all.
So....what is the correct terminology to adopt here in describing/teaching this?