ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ and ἐν Χριστῷ in Pauline text

ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ and ἐν Χριστῷ in Pauline text

Postby Eiji Koyama » September 23rd, 2012, 9:23 pm

ὥσπερ γὰρ ἐν τῷ Ἀδὰμ πάντες ἀποθνῄσκουσιν, οὕτως καὶ ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ πάντες ζῳοποιηθήσονται. (1Cor.15:22)

Is there any difference between ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ and ἐν Χριστῷ in Pauline text?
Can I say former is instrumental and latter is locative?
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Re: ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ and ἐν Χριστῷ in Pauline text

Postby MAubrey » September 23rd, 2012, 10:33 pm

Eiji Koyama wrote:ὥσπερ γὰρ ἐν τῷ Ἀδὰμ πάντες ἀποθνῄσκουσιν, οὕτως καὶ ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ πάντες ζῳοποιηθήσονται. (1Cor.15:22)

Is there any difference between ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ and ἐν Χριστῷ in Pauline text?

Yes there is a difference, but it isn't a difference in meaning. That is to say, in both cases, Χριστὸς is definite. The difference is dependent on the structure of the larger context of the phrase in question (e.g. the paragraph) and how the speaker's knowledge of ὀ Χριστὸς relates to his hearer's knowledge.

It's a rather complex subject, though. I'm not sure I could say much more than that in the beginner's forum without a lot of confusion...
Eiji Koyama wrote:Can I say former is instrumental and latter is locative?

No. To the best of my knowledge, instrumental vs. locative usage is never determined by the appearance (or lack) of the article.
Mike Aubrey
Canada Institute of Linguistics & Trinity Western University Graduate School
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Re: ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ and ἐν Χριστῷ in Pauline text

Postby Stephen Carlson » September 24th, 2012, 11:04 am

I would like to second Mike's point that the article does not determine whether a dative is instrumental or locative.
Stephen C. Carlson, Ph.D. (Duke)
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Re: ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ and ἐν Χριστῷ in Pauline text

Postby Eiji Koyama » September 25th, 2012, 2:22 am

Thank you for the answer.
I wonder why "ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ" is mostly in Ephesians except the one I posted in 1Corinthians and another one in 2Corinthians.
However "ἐν Χριστῷ" is everywhere.
Is it just structual?
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Re: ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ and ἐν Χριστῷ in Pauline text

Postby Stephen Carlson » September 25th, 2012, 11:00 am

Eiji Koyama wrote:I wonder why "ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ" is mostly in Ephesians except the one I posted in 1Corinthians and another one in 2Corinthians.
However "ἐν Χριστῷ" is everywhere.
Is it just structual?


It should be helpful to quote and discuss specific texts, rather than report impressions. For the 1 Cor 15:22 the article is there because of its discourse function (which I would identify as a contrastive topic).
Stephen C. Carlson, Ph.D. (Duke)
Post-Doctoral Fellow, Faculty of Theology, Uppsala
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