Page 1 of 1

Did Paul read Zachariah 14:9 LXX as "all in all"? If so, how?

Posted: December 24th, 2018, 12:50 pm
by Bill Ross
I've been searching for the background of 1 Corinthians 15:28 where Paul says:
[1Co 15:28 KJV] 28 And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all.
My prime suspect is Zechariah 14:9:
Zechariah 14:9 וְהָיָה יְהוָה לְמֶלֶךְ עַל־כָּל־הָאָרֶץ בַּיֹּום הַהוּא יִהְיֶה יְהוָה אֶחָד וּשְׁמֹו אֶחָֽד׃
The LXX seems to be formally similar:
Zechariah 14:9 καὶ ἔσται κύριος εἰς βασιλέα ἐπὶ πᾶσαν τὴν γῆν ἐν τῇ ἡμέρᾳ ἐκείνῃ ἔσται κύριος εἷς καὶ τὸ ὄνομα αὐτοῦ ἕν
Can one legitimately get from the LXX of Zechariah 14:9 to "that God may be all in all"?

Note: I have not heard him mention this verse that I can remember but I'm very influenced by Dr. Michael Heiser and his doctorate topic of Jewish binitarainism and "the second YHVH" idea which he discusses here: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=pl3AMS6-BfQ

Re: Did Paul read Zachariah 14:9 LXX as "all in all"? If so, how?

Posted: December 24th, 2018, 5:47 pm
by MAubrey
Does it need a background?

I don't see Zech 14:9 getting you there.

εἷς, καὶ τὸ ὄνομα αὐτοῦ is quite different from ἕν πάντα ἐν πᾶνσιν.

For one, Paul's describing something that has not happened yet that ought to happen (ἵνα), where ask Zechariah 14:9 is an already existing state describing God's uniqueness. One is eschatological and the other is monotheistic.

Re: Did Paul read Zachariah 14:9 LXX as "all in all"? If so, how?

Posted: December 25th, 2018, 10:30 am
by Barry Hofstetter
Bill Ross wrote:
December 24th, 2018, 12:50 pm
I've been searching for the background of 1 Corinthians 15:28 where Paul says:
[1Co 15:28 KJV] 28 And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all.
My prime suspect is Zechariah 14:9:
Zechariah 14:9 וְהָיָה יְהוָה לְמֶלֶךְ עַל־כָּל־הָאָרֶץ בַּיֹּום הַהוּא יִהְיֶה יְהוָה אֶחָד וּשְׁמֹו אֶחָֽד׃
The LXX seems to be formally similar:
Zechariah 14:9 καὶ ἔσται κύριος εἰς βασιλέα ἐπὶ πᾶσαν τὴν γῆν ἐν τῇ ἡμέρᾳ ἐκείνῃ ἔσται κύριος εἷς καὶ τὸ ὄνομα αὐτοῦ ἕν
Can one legitimately get from the LXX of Zechariah 14:9 to "that God may be all in all"?

Note: I have not heard him mention this verse that I can remember but I'm very influenced by Dr. Michael Heiser and his doctorate topic of Jewish binitarainism and "the second YHVH" idea which he discusses here: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=pl3AMS6-BfQ
Curious as to why you didn't cite 1 For 15:28 in the Greek, if you are looking for parallels or antecedents:

ὅταν δὲ ὑποταγῇ αὐτῷ τὰ πάντα, τότε [καὶ] αὐτὸς ὁ υἱὸς ὑποταγήσεται τῷ ὑποτάξαντι αὐτῷ τὰ πάντα, ἵνα ᾖ ὁ θεὸς [τὰ] πάντα ἐν πᾶσιν.

To me, this doesn't look a whole lot like

καὶ ἔσται κύριος εἰς βασιλέα ἐπὶ πᾶσαν τὴν γῆν ἐν τῇ ἡμέρᾳ ἐκείνῃ ἔσται κύριος εἷς καὶ τὸ ὄνομα αὐτοῦ ἕν

I mean, I'm sure that Paul had read Zechariah, but proving influence apart from direct quotation or citation is difficult even when the language is closer than this.