On another forum, someone raised this verse in Acts 28 in a discussion of constructio ad sensum as regards the Holy Spirit as masculine in concept.
Acts 28:25-26 (NA27):
ἀσύμφωνοι δὲ ὄντες πρὸς ἀλλήλους ἀπελύοντο εἰπόντος τοῦ Παύλου ῥῆμα ἕν, ὅτι καλῶς τὸ πνεῦμα τὸ ἅγιον ἐλάλησεν διὰ Ἠσαΐου τοῦ προφήτου πρὸς τοὺς πατέρας ὑμῶν λέγων· πορεύθητι πρὸς τὸν λαὸν τοῦτον καὶ εἰπόν· ἀκοῇ ἀκούσετε καὶ οὐ μὴ συνῆτε καὶ βλέποντες βλέψετε καὶ οὐ μὴ ἴδητε·
At first I was inclined to go along with this explanation, but today I was rummaging through some of the statements about "the word of the Lord" coming to various prophets in the Septuagint, and this is a sample of what I ran across:
Genesis 15:1 – ἐγενήθη ῥῆμα Κυρίου πρὸς Αβραμ ἐν ὁράματι λέγων…
Genesis 15:4 – φωνὴ Κυρίου ἐγένετο πρὸς αὐτὸν λέγων…
1 Samuel 15:1 – ἐγενήθη ῥῆμα Κυρίου πρὸς Σαμουηλ λέγων…
2 Samuel 7:4 – ἐγένετο ῥῆμα Κυρίου πρὸς Ναθαν λέγων…
2 Samuel 24:11 – λόγος Κυρίου ἐγένετο πρὸς Γαδ τὸν προφήτην τὸν ὁρῶντα Δαυιδ λέγων…
1 Kings 12:22 – ἐγένετο λόγος Κυρίου πρὸς Σαμαιαν ἄνθρωπον τοῦ θεοῦ λέγων…
καὶ τὰ λοιπά
I found it surprising that both ῥῆμα (n.) and φωνή (f.) were paired with λέγων instead of the expected λέγον and λέγουσα, respectively.
Is there a rule of grammar that explains what's going on here as regards the pairing of non-masculine subjects with the masculine form of the participle when thus separated?
Thanks a lot!
Jason
