Well, this is definitely a basic level question...
I'm wondering why μὲ sometimes has an epsilon in front of it (ἐμὲ). I thought that it was because the preceding word ended in a consonant and adding the epsilon made it sound better when speaking the language (similar to the movable ν?)... but i've come across ἐμὲ in the NT where the preceding word does not end in a consonant... it's inconsistent...
Is there a different understanding of this?
Grammar questions which are not related to any specific text.
2 posts • Page 1 of 1
ἐμέ is more emphatic than its enclitic form με.
Tús maith leath na hoibre.