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Re: Can a genitive be both objective and subjective?

Posted: January 23rd, 2019, 8:58 am
by Stephen Carlson
Barry Hofstetter wrote:
January 23rd, 2019, 8:45 am
Quite. The "plenary genitive" appears to be the "genitive of I can't make up my mind what kind of genitive this is..." :lol:
I thought that was the "aporetic genitive"!

Re: Can a genitive be both objective and subjective?

Posted: January 23rd, 2019, 5:39 pm
by MAubrey
Bill Ross wrote:
January 22nd, 2019, 9:29 pm
I was just reviewing the genitive on this site: https://www.ntgreek.org/pdf/genitive_case.pdf

It appears they suggest that there exists a "plenary genitive" that is both. Is this chart controversial/wrong or am I missing some naunce?
It's uncontroversially wrong. :D

Wallace, who came up with the "plenary genitive", is emphatic in the introduction to his grammar that his categories aren't "real." They do not have ontological status. They're just labels that he considers exegetically convenient.

So these categories aren't grammatical categories, they're something else entirely.
Stirling Bartholomew wrote:
January 22nd, 2019, 10:00 pm
MAubrey wrote:
November 13th, 2018, 8:23 pm
The subjective/objective distinction is predicated on mapping transitive clause syntax onto a noun phrase ...
A dubious procedure.
That was sort of my point.