I came across this quote in Bullingers "Figures of Speech", and cannot make sense of it. Perhaps I am missing something obvious in my ignorance...hoping you can help.
" ...here comes the matter of punctuation. In Rom.8:34 we have a very similiar construction, which if we treat it as 1 Cor. 15:29 is treated in the A.V. and R.V.., would read thus, "Who is he that condemneth Christ that died? But the question is made to end at the word "condemneth," and the Ellipsis of the verb substantive is supplied thus: Who is he that condemneth? It is Christ that died"...
I understand the problems with 1 Cor.15:29, that is not my issue. My question is how can Bullinger translate 8:34(a) as if Christ is the object of the participle and should therefore be in the accusative case, when in EVERY text I have found it remains in the nominative, making his translation at best defective on it's face. What don't I see?
Also, this is my first post on the new board. I haven't figured out how to use the greek font yet. Sorry. I have lurked here on/off for a long time. Thanks for the education along the way.
Rick
