ὑμῶν αὐτῶν vs. αὐτῶν ὑμῶν

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jjmccollum
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Joined: January 17th, 2020, 5:55 pm

ὑμῶν αὐτῶν vs. αὐτῶν ὑμῶν

Post by jjmccollum »

I'm investigating a textual variant in Eph 6:9 in which two variant readings reference "your own lord" using the same intensive pronoun construction, but in different orders: ὑμῶν αὐτῶν ὁ κύριος on the one hand, and αὐτῶν ὑμῶν ὁ κύριος on the other. A quick check on TLG (allowing for postpositives between the terms and allowing for both terms to be in the nominative, genitive, dative, or accusative) shows that the construction with the second-person pronoun first is over ten times more frequent than the construction with the order inverted, so it seems that ὑμῶν αὐτῶν is certainly the more "normal" usage. But I'm curious about whether there are any pragmatic factors that might inform the word order of the construction, and if so, I'd really appreciate any sources that discuss this subject. I know I could write off the αὐτῶν ὑμῶν variant reading as arising from a longer reading by a scribal error, but it would be nice if I could explain if it's doing anything in the discourse distinct from what ὑμῶν αὐτῶν is doing.
Jason Hare
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Joined: June 2nd, 2011, 5:28 pm
Location: Tel Aviv, Israel
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Re: ὑμῶν αὐτῶν vs. αὐτῶν ὑμῶν

Post by Jason Hare »

jjmccollum wrote: February 16th, 2023, 11:32 pm I'm investigating a textual variant in Eph 6:9 in which two variant readings reference "your own lord" using the same intensive pronoun construction, but in different orders: ὑμῶν αὐτῶν ὁ κύριος on the one hand, and αὐτῶν ὑμῶν ὁ κύριος on the other. A quick check on TLG (allowing for postpositives between the terms and allowing for both terms to be in the nominative, genitive, dative, or accusative) shows that the construction with the second-person pronoun first is over ten times more frequent than the construction with the order inverted, so it seems that ὑμῶν αὐτῶν is certainly the more "normal" usage. But I'm curious about whether there are any pragmatic factors that might inform the word order of the construction, and if so, I'd really appreciate any sources that discuss this subject. I know I could write off the αὐτῶν ὑμῶν variant reading as arising from a longer reading by a scribal error, but it would be nice if I could explain if it's doing anything in the discourse distinct from what ὑμῶν αὐτῶν is doing.
It’s exactly the same thing.
Jason A. Hare
The Hebrew Café
Tel Aviv, Israel
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