That is quite a short reply? Why so?
This is some of the infomation I have found on this question:-
The following are various comments from theologians and scholars on the Greek grammar pertaining to the above verse from the Gospel of John.
The LINGUISTIC KEY TO THE GREEK NEW TESTAMENT by Fritz Rienecker & Cleon Rogers on page 217 published by Zondervan States the following on the Greek grammar of John 1:1:-
"theos ,God. The word is with out the article and is the predicate emphasising quality, "the word had the same nature as God" (s. Philip B, Harner, "Qualitative Anarthrous Predicate Nouns," J[ournal of] B[iblical] L[iterature], 92 [March 1973], 75-78."
'A Grammatical Analysis of the Greek N.T.' by Max Zerwick S.J. - Mary Grosvenor, Editrice Pontifico Istituto Biblico Roma 1996 on page 285 states:-
"theos, "the Word was divine", pred. wt art., insisting on the nature of the Word § 175."
'Those Incredible Christians' by Hugh J. Schonfield on page 247, and in his 'The Original New Testament on page 479 he reproduces John 1:1 as follows:-
"In the beginning was the Word. And the Word was with God. So the Word was Divine."
Earnest William Barnes Sc.D. Camb., Hon. D.D. Aber. and Edin., Hon. LL.D. Glas, F.R.S. Bishop of Birmingham in his book 'The Rise of Christianity' page 94-95:-
"The gospel opens with sentences familiar to, and beloved by every Christian. "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and God was the Word. More accurately, as the definite article is absent from the Greek, the last phrase should read "and the Word was divine." The Word was with God and partook of His nature without being identical with Him."
Corresponding with the theology of the foregoing comments of various theologians is this comment of Origin's understanding of Jesus Christ in relationship to Jehovah form the book 'Christian Fathers' by Maurice Wiles page 36:-
"The divine unity is preserved by firmly subordinating the Son to the Father; he is "god" and not "the god", as Origen puts it; "god" and not "God", as we may more freely translate him. The declaration of Jesus that "my Father is greater than I" (John 14:28) is true, say Origen, in every respect of the Son's being in relation to the Father."
Newbberrry Reference Study Bible (K.J.V.) N.T. page vii:-
“THE GREEK ARTICLE … THE ABSENCE OF THE ARTICLE before a word in Greek, signifies, that this word is not to be understood as objective, but characteristic; that is it is not simply an object before the mind, but it expresses the charater of something with which it is connected. For example John 1. 1, “The Word was with God. Here the word God with the article is objective.
“And the Word was God.” Here God is without the article is characteristic; that is, it signifies the Word was divine”
Using "divine" (godlike in character or the same "nature" as God (ho theos) but not the same person) for "theos" in John 1:1 seems to be an approved rendering by some theologians etc..
Many say the there is only one way to render "theos" of John 1:1, that is "God" but that statement is not supported by many scholars for grammatical reasons, re the above!