RandallButh wrote:Anyway, why is Yehoshua/Yeshua` called an Aramaic name? the Aramaic would have been y.th.w.`.
(When you come up with the answer, you can apply the same analogy to Golgotha and you will find John's Gospel correct in calling Golgotha Hebrew. Actually, John was more correct because golgolet actually meant skull in Hebrew, while y.sh.`. never really penetrated into Aramaic as a loan verb.)
And then muse over the fact that the Judean Aramaic NT lectionaries (aka ChristianPalestinianAramaic) use Y.s.w.s. rather than Y.sh.w.` for the name Yeshua`.
But, of course, ἑβραϊστί can render both "in Hebrew" and "in Aramaic." To what extent did first-Century Greek speakers differentiate between the Aramaic spoken in the streets of most of Palestine and the Hebrew read in the houses of study?