John 1 in Bodmer p66

[Michael W Abernathy]

I'm looking at John 1:1-3. Metzger specifically mentions the Bodmer manuscript does not have punctuation, but I note there are dots exactly where I expect some punctuation. If they aren't punctuation, what are they?
Sincerely,
Michael Abernathy

[S Walch]

Well it certainly has some punctuation - the mid-dot is used throughout to mark the end of clauses. Not exactly sure which Metzger publication you're referring to, but does he definitely say it has absolutely no punctuation?

Even Floyd V. Filson in A New Papyrus Manuscript of the Gospel of John (The Biblical Archaeologist Vol. 20, No. 3 (Sep., 1957) p. 59) says:

The punctuation is not much developed. The usual mark is a dot, more or less elevated in relation to the letter it follows; it serves the purpose of our period or comma or semicolon or colon or question mark. There are a few other scattered marks.

[Michael W Abernathy]

Sorry, I misread. He says there is no punctuation in verse 3 here οὐδὲ ἕν. ὃ γέγονεν ἐν. I was thinking of another source that said there was no punctuation in the early manuscripts.

Bruce Manning Metzger, United Bible Societies, A Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament, Second Edition a Companion Volume to the United Bible Societies’ Greek New Testament (4th Rev. Ed.) (London; New York: United Bible Societies, 1994), 167.