Yeah, that could be a recipe for disaster if mixed in to the wrong recipe.Jonathan Robie wrote: ↑July 27th, 2023, 9:42 am I wouldn't want to bake this interpretation into my understanding of what the Greek word means.

Yeah, that could be a recipe for disaster if mixed in to the wrong recipe.Jonathan Robie wrote: ↑July 27th, 2023, 9:42 am I wouldn't want to bake this interpretation into my understanding of what the Greek word means.
The Wiktionary page describes modern Greek punctuation, but some editions follow Byzantine practice. Actually, (2) is basically fine though inadequate since one would have know what a κόμμα is, and (1) is merely an example of (2). More pertinently, this punctuation mark separates colons (κῶλα), and vocatives can form a colon.Jonathan Robie wrote: ↑July 22nd, 2023, 6:23 pm Wiktionary tells me that the άνω τελεία is used thus:
1. Separates groups of clauses in a sentence.
2. Separates two parts of a sentence where a κόμμα is thought to be inadequate.
But Πάτερ ἡμῶν ὁ ἐν τοῖς οὐρανοῖς is not a clause, and the whitespace separates these three very parallel lines (which I am putting back together below):
Where can I find a useful discussion of this? I really don't know anything about Byzantine Greek punctuation.Stephen Carlson wrote: ↑August 1st, 2023, 12:25 amThe Wiktionary page describes modern Greek punctuation, but some editions follow Byzantine practice. Actually, (2) is basically fine though inadequate since one would have know what a κόμμα is, and (1) is merely an example of (2). More pertinently, this punctuation mark separates colons (κῶλα), and vocatives can form a colon.Jonathan Robie wrote: ↑July 22nd, 2023, 6:23 pm Wiktionary tells me that the άνω τελεία is used thus:
1. Separates groups of clauses in a sentence.
2. Separates two parts of a sentence where a κόμμα is thought to be inadequate.
But Πάτερ ἡμῶν ὁ ἐν τοῖς οὐρανοῖς is not a clause, and the whitespace separates these three very parallel lines (which I am putting back together below):