Mark 14:60 wrote:Mark 14:60 καὶ ἀναστὰς ὁ ἀρχιερεὺς εἰς μέσον ἐπηρώτησεν τὸν Ἰησοῦν λέγων · οὐκ ἀποκρίνῃ οὐδὲν τί οὗτοί σου καταμαρτυροῦσιν;
Then the high priest stood up before them and asked Jesus, “Have you no answer? What is it that they testify against you?” (NRSV)
The NRSV's decision to treat Mark 14:60b as two questions instead of one as NA27 punctuated it is interesting in and of itself, but I'm wondering about the sense of the present καταμαρτυροῦσιν. Fanning p. 200 labels it as a progressive / descriptive / specific presents, indicating that it is currently on-going. But this can't be right. The false witnesses have already made their testimony and the high priest is interrogating Jesus about their claims. They're not talking over the high priest's question(s) to Jesus.
So, my question is: why is the present καταμαρτυροῦσιν referring to past statements?