As I was reading from my Greek NT, I came across the following clause in Romans 9:5 ὁ ὢν ἐπὶ πάντων θεὸς εὐλογητὸς εἰς τοὺς αἰῶνας, ἀμήν. Exactly what is θεὸς syntactical function here? Is it appositive? Or is it functioning as the predicate?
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Romans 9:5
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Please quote the Greek text you are discussing directly in your post if it is reasonably short - do not ask people to look it up. This is not a beginner's forum, competence in Greek is assumed.
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Re: Romans 9:5
It's the predicate.
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Re: Romans 9:5
The old 1885 RV offered no less than four alternate translations of this clause:Justin Cofer wrote:Exactly what is θεὸς syntactical function here? Is it appositive? Or is it functioning as the predicate?
"... flesh, who is over all, God blessed for ever."
"... flesh. He who is God over all be/is blessed for ever."
"... flesh. He who is over all is God, blessed for ever."
"... flesh, who is over all. God be/is blessed for ever."
The first was placed in the text, but each of the other three must have had powerful committee advocates, for all three of them to get into the margin.
You'll find an extended discussion of the options, running for several pages of small print, in Sanday and Headlam.
Of more recent commentaries known to me, the fullest discussion is in Cranfield's ICC, vol. 2, pp. 464-70.
Re: Romans 9:5
The reading you choose will depend on your interpretation. Besides the ones that Evan gives, there is even a fifth quite distinct possibility:Justin Cofer wrote:As I was reading from my Greek NT, I came across the following clause in Romans 9:5 ὁ ὢν ἐπὶ πάντων θεὸς εὐλογητὸς εἰς τοὺς αἰῶνας, ἀμήν. Exactly what is θεὸς syntactical function here? Is it appositive? Or is it functioning as the predicate?
"... flesh. The God who is over all [be] blessed for ever, amen."
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Re: Romans 9:5
As Cranfield's commentary points out (cited in this thread), it's basically a punctuation issue and the identification of the syntactic function depends on the punctuation.Justin Cofer wrote:As I was reading from my Greek NT, I came across the following clause in Romans 9:5 ὁ ὢν ἐπὶ πάντων θεὸς εὐλογητὸς εἰς τοὺς αἰῶνας, ἀμήν. Exactly what is θεὸς syntactical function here? Is it appositive? Or is it functioning as the predicate?
Stephen C. Carlson, Ph.D.
Melbourne, Australia
Melbourne, Australia
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