Οἴδατε ὅτι ὅτε ἔθνη ἦτε πρὸς τὰ εἴδωλα τὰ ἄφωνα ὡς ἂν ἤγεσθε ἀπαγόμενοι.
I understand that ἦτε needs to be understood in the verse to make sense of the participle, but why does Paul include ὡς ἂν ἤγεσθε? Whats the point that he is advancing?
1 Cor 12:2 is difficult: ὅτι πρὸς τὰ εἴδωλα τὰ ἄφωνα ὡς ἂν ἤγεσθε ἀπαγόμενοι may be transl. how you were attracted, carried away again and again to mute idols, where ἄν denotes repetition, and ὡς takes up the preceding ὅτι; for another expl., presupposing the rdg. ὡς ἀνήγεσθε, s. JWeiss ad loc.; s. also ICC ad loc.
Robertson in his grammar says (page 974):
In 1 Cor. 12:2, ὡς ἂν ἤγεσθε, we have the imperfect ind. with ἄν for the notion of repetition (cf. ὅταν).
Is Paul saying that they were habitually being carried away by mute idols?