John 1:1f

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John 1:1f

Postby Scott Lawson » March 10th, 2013, 6:34 pm

Why does BDAG have John 1:1f as a scripture reference under πρός (g)? It must be a typo, right? There seems to me to only be an a, b and c part to John 1:1 and no "f" segment.

How much weight does Robertson's comment have that πρός at John 1:1 conveys the idea of face to face fellowship between the Logos and God? (R. 625 lines 12-14)

Recent conversation has me again thinking about the effect of verbs of motion on stative prepositions and stative verbs on "transitive prepositions" as Wallace calls them. Robertson speaks of prepositions with "verbs of rest". Is this the same as "state verbs" a.k.a. "stative verbs"? (R.624 (5) line 5 and 625 line 16) Reading on prepositions in Smyth he also uses the term "verbs of rest" at 1659 Constructio Praegnans (b). I find the notion of Constructio Praegnans intriguing! It is stated by Smyth that "A verb of motion is often used with a prepostion with the dative to anticipate the rest that follows the action fo the verb: ἐν τῶ ποταμῶ ἔπεσον they fell (into and were) in the river..." It seems more like this would now be related to the (I don't even know what to call it...aspect, aktionsart...what?) type of verb, perhaps resultative or some such, rather than connected to the prepositon.
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Re: John 1:1f

Postby Stephen Carlson » March 10th, 2013, 7:35 pm

"f" is a common abbreviation for "following (verse)." πρός is also found in John 1:2.
Stephen C. Carlson, Ph.D. (Duke, New Testament)
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Re: John 1:1f

Postby Scott Lawson » March 10th, 2013, 7:40 pm

Stephen Carlson wrote:"f" is a common abbreviation for "following (verse)." πρός is also found in John 1:2.


Thanks Stephen! I've seen ff and understand it to mean following verses plural...so one "f" is just the following verse, evidently. Well that's one question answered!
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