Nobody has tackled this to date. I have little to say about translations, and this forum is not really the proper place to discuss the virtues (or flaws) in particular versions, but it seems to me that the semantics of εὑρέθην really ought to have some discussion. So ...
Alan Patterson wrote:Rom 10.20
ησαιας δε αποτολμα και λεγει
a) ευρεθην τοις εμε μη ζητουσιν,
b) εμφανης εγενομην τοις εμε μη επερωτωσιν (WH)
And Isaiah is even bold enough to say,
a) “I was found by those who did not seek me;
b) I became well known to those who did not ask for me.” (NET)
Also, the LXX reads:
εμφανης εγενομην τοις εμε μη ζητουσιν,
ευρεθην τοις εμε μη επερωτωσιν
Q1. Why did the writer of Romans switch ζητουσιν with επερωτωσιν?)
My guess, for what it's worth, is that he was citing it from memory and, knowing that the clauses were parallel, arranged the elements the way they go more naturally in Greek (εὑρέθην ... ζητοῦσιν). But again, that's a guess.
I'm going to skip over Q2 and Q and yes, Q4 as well. It is sometimes more difficult to read the minds of translators than to make sense of the oriiginal text. I prefer to keep the focus on the original text.
I offer an English version only to show how I understand the original text of Rom 10:20 (not the LXX form); I take the point to be God's intentional direct accessibility in the face of total want of curiosity of those to whom He has been accessible:
"I disclosed myself to those who were not seeking me; I appeared directly to those who were not inquiring after me."
Of interest to me is the form εὑρέθην. I remember that we have previously discussed (on the old BG mailing list) the passive of εὑρίσκω as used in Mt. 1:18 where Mary εὑρέθη ἐν γαστρὶ ἔχουσα, the question being whether the verb there is really passive or might perhaps be understood as reflexive in the sense, "revealed hersel to be pregnant" or even "found herself pregnant."
In the text of Isaiah 65 as cited by Paul in Rom 10:20 it seems to me that there's no way to understand εὑρέθην as passive rather than reflexive; I don't see how this can be involuntary or any sort of passive transformation of εὑρεῖν. Surely it is a matter of God's deliberate revelation of Himself to those who are not seeking Him and don't even want to seek him. This has to be a reflexive, i.e. middle usage, and I think that the parallel clause, ἐμφανὴς ἐγενόμην makes clear how the translator of the Hebrew original into Greek understood the sense of εὑρέθην.
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
… ἐπειδὴ καὶ τὸν οἶνον ἠξίους
πίνειν, συνεκποτέ’ ἐστί σοι καὶ τὴν τρύγα Aristophanes, Plutus 1085