Stephen Carlson wrote:Pat Ferguson wrote:
If extant earlier--and possibly earlier--mss indicate that Jesus either expressed no emotion (as in papyrus fragment Egerton 2, ca. 200 CE), or that he was moved with compassion or pity (σπλαγχνισθεὶς in 01, 02, and 03), then on what objective basis did the codex Bezae scribe alter the wording?
Mod note: This question goes outside of the scope of B-Greek, so I invite those wishing to answer to respond by private message.
To be clear: B-Greek won't discuss which manuscript tradition is the best or most faithful one or which translation is the right one.
We can discuss what the differences are among manuscripts.