Hebrews 1:5 . . . καὶ αὐτὸς ἔσται μοι εἰς υἱόν
Is there any significance in the author using εἰς υἱόν as opposed to the predicate nominative υἱός (yes I know he is quoting Psa. 2:7 so the same question applies there)? A quick search of the LXX & GNT seems to show the construction with the predicate nominative perhaps slightly more common.
Some places with the εἰς + the accusative construction could be argued to indicate a status or change of status. This could fit nicely with the meaning of the preposition as indicating 1. extension involving a goal or 4. marker of goals involving affective/abstract/suitability aspects (BDAG). For example:
Ruth 4:15 καὶ ἔσται σοι εἰς ἐπιστρέφοντα ψυχὴν
Hebrews 8:10 καὶ αὐτοὶ ἔσονταί μοι εἰς λαόν (depending on how one understands it Israel was God's people, but in the day spoken of in 8:10 their status would change).
In Hebrews 1:5 the status gained would be the name inherited in 1:4.
Some places with the predicate nominative seem to focus more on being than status:
Genesis 17:8 ἔσομαι αὐτοῖς θεός (speaking of the reality of the promise, not a status gained).
But then a verse like Revelation 21:7 confuses things: ὁ νικῶν κληρονομήσει ταῦτα καὶ ἔσομαι αὐτῷ θεὸς καὶ αὐτὸς ἔσται μοι υἱός.
Hebrews 1:5 εἰς υἱόν ???
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Hebrews 1:5 εἰς υἱόν ???
Rob Matlack
"It is not our task to secure the triumph of truth, but merely to fight on its behalf."--Blaise Pascal
"It is not our task to secure the triumph of truth, but merely to fight on its behalf."--Blaise Pascal
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Re: Hebrews 1:5 εἰς υἱόν ???
It seems like this is a Hebraism. In Hebrew, "to be" + preposition "Le" means "to become", e.g. to become a wife, a people, son, father etc.