This is always translated as "In the beginning", but from the little IἘν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ Λόγος
understand of Greek grammar, one shouldn't append the definite article in
English if the article is absent in Greek.
Is this "hyer-literal" translation accurate:
http://catholic-resources.org/John/Outl ... ologue.htm"In origin was the Word"
The devil has an article, in both Greek and English, but again, beginningὅτι ἀπ᾽ ἀρχῆς ὁ διάβολος ἁμαρτάνει
"For the devil sins from the beginning."
has none.
Apologies for a simplistic question, I'm only two words into the text and
I'm confused.
Can someone clear this up for me?
Danny Diskin