Two Questions about Mark 3:1-3

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Wes Wood
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Joined: September 20th, 2013, 8:18 pm

Two Questions about Mark 3:1-3

Post by Wes Wood »

First the text,

1Καὶ εἰσῆλθεν πάλιν εἰς τὴν συναγωγήν. καὶ ἦν ἐκεῖ ἄνθρωπος ἐξηραμμένην ἔχων τὴν χεῖρα: 2καὶ παρετήρουν αὐτὸν εἰ τοῖς σάββασιν θεραπεύσει αὐτόν, ἵνα κατηγορήσωσιν αὐτοῦ. 3καὶ λέγει τῷ ἀνθρώπῳ τῷ τὴν ξηρὰν χεῖρα ἔχοντι, Ἔγειρε εἰς τὸ μέσον.

Then my questions. 1) Is there a particular reason why the future "he will heal" is used in verse to after the conditional?
2) Is there an ever so slight bit of foreshadowing in Jesus's initial address to the man or (here I am trying to ask this question in a slightly different way) is this a slightly unusual way of phrasing this command?
Ἀσπάζομαι μὲν καὶ φιλῶ, πείσομαι δὲ μᾶλλον τῷ θεῷ ἢ ὑμῖν.-Ἀπολογία Σωκράτους 29δ
timothy_p_mcmahon
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Joined: June 3rd, 2011, 10:47 pm

Re: Two Questions about Mark 3:1-3

Post by timothy_p_mcmahon »

I'm thinking the use of the future is due to indirect discourse.

I'm not sure what you're thinking might be foreshadowed in Ἔγειρε εἰς τὸ μέσον. It sounds unremarkable to me.
Barry Hofstetter
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Joined: May 6th, 2011, 1:48 pm

Re: Two Questions about Mark 3:1-3

Post by Barry Hofstetter »

Specifically, it's an indirect question. Greek likes to keep the same tense and mood as if the question were still direct. The original question would be "Will he heal on the sabbath?" so the future tense is retained in the indirect question. Classical Greek sometimes uses the optative in secondary sequence (i.e., if the main verb is a past tense) in indirect statements (if the indirect question is part of the reported speech), but even that is optional, and use of the indicative would not have been wrong.

I think I see what you are getting at in the second part of the question, is ἐγείρω used to foreshadow the resurrection? Certainly healings in general in the gospels may be viewed as anticipating the resurrection (the ultimate healing, so to speak), and speak of the presence of the King-redeemer among God's people. But is the word specifically so chosen as to foreshadow the resurrection in a deliberate, literary sense? This would have to be argued on how the word is used elsewhere in Mark, and I think would be one of those things that is subject to debate even when all the evidence is collected and discussed.
N.E. Barry Hofstetter, M.A., Th.M.
Ph.D. Student U of FL
Instructor of Latin
Jack M. Barrack Hebrew Academy
καὶ σὺ τὸ σὸν ποιήσεις κἀγὼ τὸ ἐμόν. ἆρον τὸ σὸν καὶ ὕπαγε.
Wes Wood
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Joined: September 20th, 2013, 8:18 pm

Re: Two Questions about Mark 3:1-3

Post by Wes Wood »

I was considering the possibility of raised foreshadowing the restoration of the withered hand. Perhaps simar to it usage in James 5:15 or john 2:19-20, with rebuild or restore in the periphery of the meaning of the word. I'm not comfortable enough with greek overall to say this phrase is atypical, but it isn't the phrase I would expect to see.

I hadn't thought of the allusion you mention. Like you I wouldn't feel comfortable throwing that one out there without serious consideration.
Ἀσπάζομαι μὲν καὶ φιλῶ, πείσομαι δὲ μᾶλλον τῷ θεῷ ἢ ὑμῖν.-Ἀπολογία Σωκράτους 29δ
Barry Hofstetter
Posts: 2159
Joined: May 6th, 2011, 1:48 pm

Re: Two Questions about Mark 3:1-3

Post by Barry Hofstetter »

Wes Wood wrote:I was considering the possibility of raised foreshadowing the restoration of the withered hand. Perhaps simar to it usage in James 5:15 or john 2:19-20, with rebuild or restore in the periphery of the meaning of the word. I'm not comfortable enough with greek overall to say this phrase is atypical, but it isn't the phrase I would expect to see.

I hadn't thought of the allusion you mention. Like you I wouldn't feel comfortable throwing that one out there without serious consideration.
The theological consideration gets us well beyond this forum's mandate, I should think. However, Timothy's observation is also pertinent, in that the idea of "get up" is an expected meaning of the word in a context such as this. Now, ἐγείρω has quite a range of usage, but here is meaning 4 listed in BDAG:

④ to move to a standing position, rise, get up, pass. intr. of those who have awakened Mt 2:13f, 20f; 8:26; Lk 11:8; who were sitting down (EpArist 94) Mt 9:19; Lk 13:25; J 11:29; Hv 1, 4, 1; AcPl Ox 6; kneeling Hv 2, 1, 3; of the sick Mt 8:15; 9:6f; Mk 2:12; of those called back to life (cp. 4 Km 4:31) Mt 9:25; Lk 7:14. ἐκ τοῦ δείπνου rise from the table J 13:4; of one who has fallen Mt 17:7; Ac 9:8 (on ἀπὸ τ. γῆς cp. 2 Km 12:17; Ps 112:7).

Arndt, W., Danker, F. W., & Bauer, W. (2000). A Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament and other early Christian literature. Chicago: University of Chicago Press.
N.E. Barry Hofstetter, M.A., Th.M.
Ph.D. Student U of FL
Instructor of Latin
Jack M. Barrack Hebrew Academy
καὶ σὺ τὸ σὸν ποιήσεις κἀγὼ τὸ ἐμόν. ἆρον τὸ σὸν καὶ ὕπαγε.
Wes Wood
Posts: 692
Joined: September 20th, 2013, 8:18 pm

Re: Two Questions about Mark 3:1-3

Post by Wes Wood »

Thanks for the responses the indirect question makes perfect sense. And the second part I don't have a problem with either. I am meaning authorial foreshadowing inside the pericope, however. Nothing more than the author tipping his hand to what is going to happen in the narrative.
Ἀσπάζομαι μὲν καὶ φιλῶ, πείσομαι δὲ μᾶλλον τῷ θεῷ ἢ ὑμῖν.-Ἀπολογία Σωκράτους 29δ
David Lim
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Joined: June 6th, 2011, 6:55 am

Re: Two Questions about Mark 3:1-3

Post by David Lim »

Wes Wood wrote:Thanks for the responses the indirect question makes perfect sense. And the second part I don't have a problem with either. I am meaning authorial foreshadowing inside the pericope, however. Nothing more than the author tipping his hand to what is going to happen in the narrative.
It's a completely ordinary phrase as Timothy pointed out. It is easy to find its usage as simply "arise" in places like Mat 2:13, 9:19 26:46, Mark 10:49 14:42,. It clearly implies rising from a settled position, but nothing more. In fact, Luke 6:8 makes very clear what "εγειρε"/"εγειραι" in Mark 3:3 means.
δαυιδ λιμ
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