Here it is:Barry Hofstetter wrote:Thanks, that's helpful. Link to the book?
https://gupea.ub.gu.se/bitstream/2077/2 ... 9024_1.pdf
Yes, I read Deissmann's "Light from the ancient East" on this. But even Deissmann did not think that there were no Semitisms in the New Testament at all, in fact, he believed there were many of them. But I agree that this forum is not a good place for discussing this.Barry Hofstetter wrote: Now, I'm not going to argue the Hebrew on B-Greek, but I will point out again for emphasis that the Greek needs to be explained on its own without reference to any possible underlying Semitisms. One of the interesting observations to arise from the early study of the non-literary papyri is that a number of constructions which up to that time had been considered Semitisms could be found in the papyri, which shows that they were part of the everyday Greek of the period, and not due to a Semitic influence on the language.
In 442(16) (which is an article on hendiadys) several examples are given, among which Ja 5:10 (of perseverance in suffering) and Lk 2:47 (at his intelligent answers). Also, in the additional section for (16) we find Mk 6:26 = Mt 14:9 (because of the oath taken before his guests). I did not say that this Grammar mentioned John 1:17. I just said that it gave examples with hendiadyses using articles. One may agree or not with the authors, but that is what they say.Barry Hofstetter wrote: Secondly, earlier you cited BDF in support of your claim that the definite article could be used with a hendiadys. My copy of BDF does not have John 1:17 as one of it's Greek references, and lists "hendiadys" in the subject index under section 442 (16), which, interestingly enough, gives two examples of possible hendiadyses without mentioning the word, and it makes no reference to the definite article in the construction. Where did you see this in BDF?