Why is aorist infinitive used for θεάσασθαι and present infinitive for ἰδεῖν in these two parallel phrases?Luke 7:24-25 wrote:Τί ἐξήλθατε εἰς τὴν ἔρημον θεάσασθαι; κάλαμον ὑπὸ ἀνέμου σαλευόμενον; 25 ἀλλὰ τί ἐξήλθατε ἰδεῖν; ἄνθρωπον ἐν μαλακοῖς ἱματίοις ἠμφιεσμένον;
John 7:24-25 ἐξήλθατε θεάσασθαι / ἐξήλθατε ἰδεῖν
Forum rules
Please quote the Greek text you are discussing directly in your post if it is reasonably short - do not ask people to look it up. This is not a beginner's forum, competence in Greek is assumed.
Please quote the Greek text you are discussing directly in your post if it is reasonably short - do not ask people to look it up. This is not a beginner's forum, competence in Greek is assumed.
-
- Posts: 4162
- Joined: May 5th, 2011, 5:34 pm
- Location: Durham, NC
- Contact:
John 7:24-25 ἐξήλθατε θεάσασθαι / ἐξήλθατε ἰδεῖν
ἐξίσταντο δὲ πάντες καὶ διηποροῦντο, ἄλλος πρὸς ἄλλον λέγοντες, τί θέλει τοῦτο εἶναι;
http://jonathanrobie.biblicalhumanities.org/
http://jonathanrobie.biblicalhumanities.org/
-
- Posts: 3351
- Joined: May 11th, 2011, 10:51 am
- Location: Melbourne
- Contact:
Re: John 7:24-25 ἐξήλθατε θεάσασθαι / ἐξήλθατε ἰδεῖν
Actually, ἰδεῖν is a second aorist infinitive.
Stephen C. Carlson, Ph.D.
Melbourne, Australia
Melbourne, Australia
-
- Posts: 4162
- Joined: May 5th, 2011, 5:34 pm
- Location: Durham, NC
- Contact:
Re: John 7:24-25 ἐξήλθατε θεάσασθαι / ἐξήλθατε ἰδεῖν
OoopsStephen Carlson wrote:Actually, ἰδεῖν is a second aorist infinitive.
Thanks!
ἐξίσταντο δὲ πάντες καὶ διηποροῦντο, ἄλλος πρὸς ἄλλον λέγοντες, τί θέλει τοῦτο εἶναι;
http://jonathanrobie.biblicalhumanities.org/
http://jonathanrobie.biblicalhumanities.org/
-
- Posts: 3323
- Joined: February 26th, 2013, 7:12 am
Re: John 7:24-25 ἐξήλθατε θεάσασθαι / ἐξήλθατε ἰδεῖν
I think that despite its grammatical form, the θεάσασθαι is always a long-time action, while ἰδεῖν may a short or long time action.
Γελᾷ δ' ὁ μωρός, κἄν τι μὴ γέλοιον ᾖ
(Menander, Γνῶμαι μονόστιχοι 108)
(Menander, Γνῶμαι μονόστιχοι 108)