Matthew 9:10 "εν τῃ οικεια"

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Wes Wood
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Matthew 9:10 "εν τῃ οικεια"

Post by Wes Wood »

Matthew 9:9-10a in Codex Bezae "και παραγων εκειθεν ο ιης ειδεν ανθρωπον καθημενον επι το τελωνιον μαθθαιον λεγομενον και λεγει αυτω ακολουθει μοι και αναστας ηκολουθει αυτω και εγενετο αυτου ανακειμενου εν τη οικεια"

A note in the NET Bible says, "The Greek article is used here in a context that implies possession, and the referent of the implied possessive pronoun (Matthew) has been specified in the translation for clarity."

Is this really as clear as the note makes it? I will attempt to explain my understanding of what is going on and welcome any corrections or additional thoughts. The preposition takes a dative so there is nothing that I can see that must imply possession due to case. The use of the article may serve to both introduce new information and to specify a particular item of a class. In this context, it seems to me, both apply. It would appear likely then that the article is used to show that the house is associated with either Jesus or Matthew rather than to refer to another specific house from the context. The open question would then be, to which person does it refer? It seems to me that Matthew is a more likely referent than Jesus, but these are not the only options on the table. In an attempt to make this wall of text a question: is the NET note more of a defense of their interpretation than an explanation of what the text actually says?
Ἀσπάζομαι μὲν καὶ φιλῶ, πείσομαι δὲ μᾶλλον τῷ θεῷ ἢ ὑμῖν.-Ἀπολογία Σωκράτους 29δ
George F Somsel
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Re: Matthew 9:10 "εν τῃ οικεια"

Post by George F Somsel »

I find it interesting that the passage is regularly translated as "Follow me" and then we end up at a house which evidently seems to be that of our friendly neighborhood tax collector since those who are dining with him are other tax collectors. Where was Matthew to go if he is literally following Jesus (understanding "following" in the modern sense)? It seems to me quite evident that we would do better to understand ἀκολουθέω in the 3rd sense nominated by BDAG of being a disciple rather than moving behind. Then the disciple has the master at HIS (Oh, the ambiguity of pronouns), i.e., the disciple's own house.
א . In its individualizing use it focuses attention on a single thing or single concept, as already known or otherwise more definitely limited: things and pers. that are unique in kind: ὁ ἥλιος, ἡ σελήνη, ὁ οὐρανός, ἡ γῆ, ἡ θάλασσα, ὁ κόσμος, ἡ κτίσις, ὁ θεός (BWeiss [s. on θεός, beg.]), ὁ διάβολος, ὁ λόγος (J 1:1, 14), τὸ φῶς, ἡ σκοτία, ἡ ζωή, ὁ θάνατος etc. (but somet. the art. is omitted, esp. when nouns are used w. preps.; B-D-F §253, 1–4; Rob. 791f; Mlt-Turner 171). ἐν συναγωγῇ καὶ ἐν τῷ ἱερῷ J 18:20.—Virtues, vices, etc. (contrary to Engl. usage): ἡ ἀγάπη, ἡ ἀλήθεια, ἡ ἁμαρτία, ἡ δικαιοσύνη, ἡ σοφία et al.—The individualizing art. stands before a common noun that was previously mentioned (without the art.): τοὺς πέντε ἄρτους Lk 9:16
William Arndt, Frederick W. Danker, and Walter Bauer, A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature (Chicago: University of Chicago Press, 2000), 686.
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Barry Hofstetter
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Re: Matthew 9:10 "εν τῃ οικεια"

Post by Barry Hofstetter »

Wes, I think it's pretty clear, to the point where I think a note defending it is probably unnecessary. The possessive use of the article is fairly common, and I don't think anyone would dispute how it's used here. George, considering how ἀκολουθέω is used elsewhere, I think this is spot on.
N.E. Barry Hofstetter, M.A., Th.M.
Ph.D. Student U of FL
Instructor of Latin
Jack M. Barrack Hebrew Academy
καὶ σὺ τὸ σὸν ποιήσεις κἀγὼ τὸ ἐμόν. ἆρον τὸ σὸν καὶ ὕπαγε.
Stephen Hughes
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Re: Matthew 9:10 "εν τῃ οικεια"

Post by Stephen Hughes »

George F Somsel wrote:I find it interesting that the passage is regularly translated as "Follow me" and then we end up at a house which evidently seems to be that of our friendly neighborhood tax collector since those who are dining with him are other tax collectors. Where was Matthew to go if he is literally following Jesus (understanding "following" in the modern sense)? It seems to me quite evident that we would do better to understand ἀκολουθέω in the 3rd sense nominated by BDAG of being a disciple rather than moving behind. Then the disciple has the master at HIS (Oh, the ambiguity of pronouns), i.e., the disciple's own house.
To pursue your side point further... recently, I have been thinking that the word is way too used to have such a restricted meaning as follow (be going on the same direction a few steps behind) or a metaphorical extension of that. It is likely to have a much broader sense... (I take it to represent 3 situations; where persons A and B are both moving, when A is stationary and B moves, and when neither A nor B move).

There are instances where there is no movement on the part of Jesus, but others come to him. Such as
Matthew 14:13 wrote:Καὶ ἀκούσας ὁ Ἰησοῦς ἀνεχώρησεν ἐκεῖθεν ἐν πλοίῳ εἰς ἔρημον τόπον κατ’ ἰδίαν· καὶ ἀκούσαντες οἱ ὄχλοι ἠκολούθησαν αὐτῷ πεζῇ ἀπὸ τῶν πόλεων.
The idea of walking and in the following step being where the person in front of you was the step before quite plausible extends to come to the place where somebody is presently, i.e. that rather than both moving, the one whose direction the others are going towards is not moving, something like "go to were he is".

The further extension is that when neither party are moving anymore, they simply "be together (with the person)". Something like
Mark 2:15 wrote:Καὶ ἐγένετο ἐν τῷ κατακεῖσθαι αὐτὸν ἐν τῇ οἰκίᾳ αὐτοῦ, καὶ πολλοὶ τελῶναι καὶ ἁμαρτωλοὶ συνανέκειντο τῷ Ἰησοῦ καὶ τοῖς μαθηταῖς αὐτοῦ· ἦσαν γὰρ πολλοί, καὶ ἠκολούθησαν αὐτῷ.
Which I take as they "accompanied" him in their eating and drinking. To my mind, that either it implies that Jesus was the guy at the party with charisma which everyone gave their attention to, or that they were simply in the same place as him (probably doing the same things). I read this is referring to a relaxing evening with friends, something like "be in the place where he is". If they came to him without him moving, that could be possible too, as above, but either way, I don't take this as Jesus had a religious discourse with them and they became his disciples.

One or two people can follow somebody, more than 2 or 3 gets messy, but when there are great multitudes it is not long before there is no further movement possible as they encircle the person being followed, especially if he is offering cures for disease.
Matthew 19:2 wrote:Καὶ ἠκολούθησαν αὐτῷ ὄχλοι πολλοί, καὶ ἐθεράπευσεν αὐτοὺς ἐκεῖ.
A can't imagine a Cecil B. DeMille's multitude of the ill being led in procession across the Judean countryside with Jesus out in front while he cured them.
Γελᾷ δ' ὁ μωρός, κἄν τι μὴ γέλοιον ᾖ
(Menander, Γνῶμαι μονόστιχοι 108)
cwconrad
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Re: Matthew 9:10 "εν τῃ οικεια"

Post by cwconrad »

The original question is, I guess, whether the article in the phrase ἐν τῇ οἰκίᾳ indicate possession. There's a further implied question here, I think, of whose house it is in which this banquet so well-attended by τελῶναι is being held. I think it's interesting to compare the phrasing of the three parallel Synoptic texts:
Matt 9:9 Καὶ παράγων ὁ Ἰησοῦς ἐκεῖθεν εἶδεν ἄνθρωπον καθήμενον ἐπὶ τὸ τελώνιον, Μαθθαῖον λεγόμενον, καὶ λέγει αὐτῷ· ἀκολούθει μοι. καὶ ἀναστὰς ἠκολούθησεν αὐτῷ. 10 Καὶ ἐγένετο αὐτοῦ ἀνακειμένου ἐν τῇ οἰκίᾳ, καὶ ἰδοὺ πολλοὶ τελῶναι καὶ ἁμαρτωλοὶ ἐλθόντες συνανέκειντο τῷ Ἰησοῦ καὶ τοῖς μαθηταῖς αὐτοῦ
Mark 2:13 Καὶ ἐξῆλθεν πάλιν παρὰ τὴν θάλασσαν· καὶ πᾶς ὁ ὄχλος ἤρχετο πρὸς αὐτόν, καὶ ἐδίδασκεν αὐτούς. 14 Καὶ παράγων εἶδεν Λευὶν τὸν τοῦ Ἁλφαίου καθήμενον ἐπὶ τὸ τελώνιον, καὶ λέγει αὐτῷ· ἀκολούθει μοι. καὶ ἀναστὰς ἠκολούθησεν αὐτῷ. 15 Καὶ γίνεται κατακεῖσθαι αὐτὸν ἐν τῇ οἰκίᾳ αὐτοῦ, καὶ πολλοὶ τελῶναι καὶ ἁμαρτωλοὶ συνανέκειντο τῷ Ἰησοῦ καὶ τοῖς μαθηταῖς αὐτοῦ· ἦσαν γὰρ πολλοὶ καὶ ἠκολούθουν αὐτῷ.
Luke 5:27 Καὶ μετὰ ταῦτα ἐξῆλθεν καὶ ἐθεάσατο τελώνην ὀνόματι Λευὶν καθήμενον ἐπὶ τὸ τελώνιον, καὶ εἶπεν αὐτῷ· ἀκολούθει μοι. 28 καὶ καταλιπὼν πάντα ἀναστὰς ἠκολούθει αὐτῷ. 29 Καὶ ἐποίησεν δοχὴν μεγάλην Λευὶς αὐτῷ ἐν τῇ οἰκίᾳ αὐτοῦ, καὶ ἦν ὄχλος πολὺς τελωνῶν καὶ ἄλλων οἳ ἦσαν μετ᾿ αὐτῶν κατακείμενοι.
The accounts of Matthew and Mark display the same ambiguity regarding whose house it is where the banquet is held. Who is the αὐτοῦ of αὐτοῦ ἀνακειμένου in Matthew? Who is the αὐτὸν of κατακεῖσθαι αὐτὸν ἐν τῇ οἰκίᾳ αὐτοῦ in Mark? In Luke, on the other hand, the host at the banquet is clearly Levi: ἐποίησεν δοχὴν μεγάλην Λευὶς αὐτῷ ἐν τῇ οἰκίᾳ αὐτοῦ.

I guess that Wes's original question concerned strictly the τῇ and whether the article carried an implication of possession. That question has been dealt with. George waxed eloquent on the ambiguity of pronouns:
Then the disciple has the master at HIS (Oh, the ambiguity of pronouns), i.e., the disciple's own house.
Assuming that Luke reformulated a traditional narrative, he certainly does seem to have taken care to eliminate any ambiguity.
οὔτοι ἀπ’ ἀρχῆς πάντα θεοὶ θνητοῖς ὑπέδειξαν,
ἀλλὰ χρόνῳ ζητέοντες ἐφευρίσκουσιν ἄμεινον. (Xenophanes, Fragment 16)

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
Wes Wood
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Re: Matthew 9:10 "εν τῃ οικεια"

Post by Wes Wood »

Thank all of you for your responses to my poorly worded post. In hindsight, I believe that my primary point of concern was distinguishing between what the text actually said and what it implied. Your posts more than addressed my concerns.

Thanks again!
Ἀσπάζομαι μὲν καὶ φιλῶ, πείσομαι δὲ μᾶλλον τῷ θεῷ ἢ ὑμῖν.-Ἀπολογία Σωκράτους 29δ
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