But the grammars are telling us there is a difference in form, not just two different senses of the same perfect form. The transitive form is -εστακα and the commoner intransitive form -εστηκα. At least that's what these grammars are saying: Veitch, Buttmann, Winer-Schmiedel, Thackeray, Moulton-Howard. And Thackeray gives LXX examples that have a direct object: 1Kgdms 15.12, 1Macc 10.20, 11.34, and (with variants) Jer 1.10 6.17 16.5.MAubrey wrote: ↑June 9th, 2018, 6:31 pmAh yes. I had forgotten about those! There is technically a case for the transitive sense. It's still really rare...even in the papyri. I did a paper on ἵστημι six years ago that maybe I need to dig up. The intransitive usage remains the dominant usage through at least the 6th c. CE (which, at the time, was the latest century I had texts from).Tony Pope wrote: ↑June 9th, 2018, 6:20 amThen I looked more carefully at what is said in the quote. I checked Winer-Schmiedel and discovered there a footnote referring to transitive examples in LXX. See the latter part of footnote 4 in
https://archive.org/stream/grammatikdes ... 8/mode/2up
On checking 1 Sam 15.12 in Rahlfs' edition of LXX I see a footnote "cf. Thack. p. 253". It turns out that Thackeray speaks of "The new transitive perfect ἕστακα". See
https://archive.org/stream/grammarofold ... 2/mode/2up
So what are we to make of that? Is the English translation tradition right after all?
Or has someone more recently argued that the difference is merely a matter of variant spelling, and you can read the form as transitive or intransitive as you wish?
As regards Acts 8.11, most of the manuscripts and apparently all editions read ἐξεστακέναι. (Some read ἐξιστακέναι, and a few ἐξεστηκέναι.
Fine. I expressed myself unwisely. What I meant was "Is the transitive reading, which happens to be the syntax that the English translation tradition appears to follow, the right one?" (I'm not interested in defending a particular translation.) It may be of interest, though, that the Latin Vulgate dementasset eos [he had driven them crazy] is also transitive.
In any case, it seems that in this phenomenon lies the answer to Ruth's original question.