Romans 6 and interpeting παριστανω/παριστημι

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Jedd Cole
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Joined: October 24th, 2018, 8:10 pm

Romans 6 and interpeting παριστανω/παριστημι

Post by Jedd Cole » October 24th, 2018, 8:21 pm

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In Romans 6, comparing the audience's situation to slavery, you've got this phrase: "... ᾧ παριστάνετε ἑαυτοὺς δούλους εἰς ὑπακοήν, δοῦλοί ἐστε ᾧ ὑπακούετε..."

One reading might be, "To whom y'all offer/render yourselves slaves to obedience, y'all are slaves to whom y'all obey."

But I'm wondering if, depending on how one understands the verb "παριστάνετε," it could be glossed not as redundant but as a contrast between παριστανω[/παριστημι] and εἰμι. Basically, "No matter to whom you might *offer* yourselves as slaves, you're *in fact* a slave to whomever you actually *obey*."

Is this a plausible reading of the verb in this context, or is the thought simply redundant/emphatic?
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Jonathan Robie
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Re: Romans 6 and interpeting παριστανω/παριστημι

Post by Jonathan Robie » October 25th, 2018, 8:31 am

Hi Jedd, and welcome to B-Greek!

I think that's a reasonable interpretation, but I think it adds a little interpretation. I think the verb is first introduced in 6:12, which is a good starting point for this theme.
Μὴ οὖν βασιλευέτω ἡ ἁμαρτία ἐν τῷ θνητῷ ὑμῶν σώματι εἰς τὸ ὑπακούειν ταῖς ἐπιθυμίαις αὐτοῦ, μηδὲ παριστάνετε τὰ μέλη ὑμῶν ὅπλα ἀδικίας τῇ ἁμαρτίᾳ, ἀλλὰ παραστήσατε ἑαυτοὺς τῷ θεῷ ὡσεὶ ἐκ νεκρῶν ζῶντας καὶ τὰ μέλη ὑμῶν ὅπλα δικαιοσύνης τῷ θεῷ. ἁμαρτία γὰρ ὑμῶν οὐ κυριεύσει, οὐ γάρ ἐστε ὑπὸ νόμον ἀλλὰ ὑπὸ χάριν.

Τί οὖν; ἁμαρτήσωμεν ὅτι οὐκ ἐσμὲν ὑπὸ νόμον ἀλλὰ ὑπὸ χάριν; μὴ γένοιτο· οὐκ οἴδατε ὅτι ᾧ παριστάνετε ἑαυτοὺς δούλους εἰς ὑπακοήν, δοῦλοί ἐστε ᾧ ὑπακούετε, ἤτοι ἁμαρτίας εἰς θάνατον ἢ ὑπακοῆς εἰς δικαιοσύνην; χάρις δὲ τῷ θεῷ ὅτι ἦτε δοῦλοι τῆς ἁμαρτίας ὑπηκούσατε δὲ ἐκ καρδίας εἰς ὃν παρεδόθητε τύπον διδαχῆς, ἐλευθερωθέντες δὲ ἀπὸ τῆς ἁμαρτίας ἐδουλώθητε τῇ δικαιοσύνῃ· ἀνθρώπινον λέγω διὰ τὴν ἀσθένειαν τῆς σαρκὸς ὑμῶν· ὥσπερ γὰρ παρεστήσατε τὰ μέλη ὑμῶν δοῦλα τῇ ἀκαθαρσίᾳ καὶ τῇ ἀνομίᾳ εἰς τὴν ἀνομίαν, οὕτως νῦν παραστήσατε τὰ μέλη ὑμῶν δοῦλα τῇ δικαιοσύνῃ εἰς ἁγιασμόν.
But I don't think the Greek text of these few verses clearly tells you whether obedience is an indication of slavery, obedience is the same thing as slavery, or obedience leads to slavery. Your reading provides one reasonable answer to that question, perhaps going a little beyond the text.
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