Romans 6 and interpeting παριστανω/παριστημι
Posted: October 24th, 2018, 8:21 pm
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In Romans 6, comparing the audience's situation to slavery, you've got this phrase: "... ᾧ παριστάνετε ἑαυτοὺς δούλους εἰς ὑπακοήν, δοῦλοί ἐστε ᾧ ὑπακούετε..."
One reading might be, "To whom y'all offer/render yourselves slaves to obedience, y'all are slaves to whom y'all obey."
But I'm wondering if, depending on how one understands the verb "παριστάνετε," it could be glossed not as redundant but as a contrast between παριστανω[/παριστημι] and εἰμι. Basically, "No matter to whom you might *offer* yourselves as slaves, you're *in fact* a slave to whomever you actually *obey*."
Is this a plausible reading of the verb in this context, or is the thought simply redundant/emphatic?
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In Romans 6, comparing the audience's situation to slavery, you've got this phrase: "... ᾧ παριστάνετε ἑαυτοὺς δούλους εἰς ὑπακοήν, δοῦλοί ἐστε ᾧ ὑπακούετε..."
One reading might be, "To whom y'all offer/render yourselves slaves to obedience, y'all are slaves to whom y'all obey."
But I'm wondering if, depending on how one understands the verb "παριστάνετε," it could be glossed not as redundant but as a contrast between παριστανω[/παριστημι] and εἰμι. Basically, "No matter to whom you might *offer* yourselves as slaves, you're *in fact* a slave to whomever you actually *obey*."
Is this a plausible reading of the verb in this context, or is the thought simply redundant/emphatic?