Who or what is the referent of αὐτῶν in Mk. 9:48

Forum rules
Please quote the Greek text you are discussing directly in your post if it is reasonably short - do not ask people to look it up. This is not a beginner's forum, competence in Greek is assumed.
Post Reply
jgibson000
Posts: 18
Joined: June 15th, 2011, 1:56 pm

Who or what is the referent of αὐτῶν in Mk. 9:48

Post by jgibson000 » December 30th, 2018, 6:53 pm

καλόν σέ ἐστιν μονόφθαλμον εἰσελθεῖν εἰς τὴν βασιλείαν τοῦ θεοῦ ἢ δύο ὀφθαλμοὺς ἔχοντα βληθῆναι εἰς τὴν [q]γέενναν, 48 ὅπου ὁ σκώληξ αὐτῶν οὐ τελευτᾷ καὶ τὸ πῦρ οὐ σβέννυται.

I just noticed that, according to Mark, Jesus speaks of Gehenna as a place where "their [not the} worm" does not die. So I'm wondering to whom (or to what) does the worm referred to here belong?

Jeffrey
Last edited by jgibson000 on December 30th, 2018, 7:06 pm, edited 1 time in total.
0 x


Jeffrey B. Gibson
1500 W. Pratt Blvd
Chicago, IL.

timothy_p_mcmahon
Posts: 246
Joined: June 3rd, 2011, 10:47 pm

Re: Wwho or what is the referent of αὐτῶν in Mk. 9:48

Post by timothy_p_mcmahon » December 31st, 2018, 3:07 am

I'd guess this was a common adage with no specific antecedent. The "they" implicit in αὐτῶν would be those who enter γέεννα.
0 x

dougknighton
Posts: 20
Joined: June 3rd, 2011, 4:56 pm
Location: Edmonds, WA
Contact:

Re: Wwho or what is the referent of αὐτῶν in Mk. 9:48

Post by dougknighton » December 31st, 2018, 3:09 pm

Maybe it's a quotation from Isaiah 66:24, in which the plural pronoun refers the people who sinned against God. It's not an exact quotation; the pronoun is the same, but the verb tense differs: ὁ γὰρ σκώληξ αὐτῶν οὐ τελευτήσει.

Doug Knighton
0 x

Ken M. Penner
Posts: 769
Joined: May 12th, 2011, 7:50 am
Location: Antigonish, NS, Canada
Contact:

Re: Who or what is the referent of αὐτῶν in Mk. 9:48

Post by Ken M. Penner » January 1st, 2019, 11:09 pm

dougknighton wrote:
December 31st, 2018, 3:09 pm
Maybe it's a quotation from Isaiah 66:24, in which the plural pronoun refers the people who sinned against God. It's not an exact quotation; the pronoun is the same, but the verb tense differs: ὁ γὰρ σκώληξ αὐτῶν οὐ τελευτήσει.
Yes, it certainly is a quote from Isaiah 66:24. So I wouldn't recommend using it as evidence of what Jesus believed about eternal torment.
I posted my commentary on Isaiah 66 at http://ibiblio.org/bgreek/forum/viewtop ... 387#p31387
0 x
Ken M. Penner
St. Francis Xavier University

Post Reply