Luke 23:54, 56

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anthonybuzzard
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Joined: July 25th, 2011, 12:31 pm

Luke 23:54, 56

Post by anthonybuzzard »

Would you please comment on Luke 23:54 and 56. In 54 we have the anarthrous SABBATON and in 56 we have the definite article which I presume is anaphoric. In other words "the Sabbath" in verse 56 is that Sabbath, the one mentioned without the article in verse 54. Would you concur?
Thank you.
Barry Hofstetter
Posts: 2159
Joined: May 6th, 2011, 1:48 pm

Re: Luke 23:54, 56

Post by Barry Hofstetter »

anthonybuzzard wrote:Would you please comment on Luke 23:54 and 56. In 54 we have the anarthrous SABBATON and in 56 we have the definite article which I presume is anaphoric. In other words "the Sabbath" in verse 56 is that Sabbath, the one mentioned without the article in verse 54. Would you concur?
Thank you.
It helps to cite the actual Greek:

54 καὶ ἡμέρα ἦν παρασκευῆς, καὶ σάββατον ἐπέφωσκεν. 55 Κατακολουθήσασαι δὲ αἱ γυναῖκες, αἵτινες ἦσαν συνεληλυθυῖαι ἐκ τῆς Γαλιλαίας αὐτῷ, ἐθεάσαντο τὸ μνημεῖον καὶ ὡς ἐτέθη τὸ σῶμα αὐτοῦ, 56 ὑποστρέψασαι δὲ ἡτοίμασαν ἀρώματα καὶ μύρα. Καὶ τὸ μὲν σάββατον ἡσύχασαν κατὰ τὴν ἐντολήν...

I don't know that I'd say that the article is specifically anaphoric here, but it's pretty clear from context that the same Sabbath day is in view.
N.E. Barry Hofstetter, M.A., Th.M.
Ph.D. Student U of FL
Instructor of Latin
Jack M. Barrack Hebrew Academy
καὶ σὺ τὸ σὸν ποιήσεις κἀγὼ τὸ ἐμόν. ἆρον τὸ σὸν καὶ ὕπαγε.
anthonybuzzard
Posts: 2
Joined: July 25th, 2011, 12:31 pm

Re: Luke 23:54, 56

Post by anthonybuzzard »

Thanks for your reply. Another NT Greek scholar said "it probably is anaphoric." Is there any reason for saying it is not definitely anaphoric, granted that commonsense suggests the same sabbath, of course. But sabbaton "sabbath" followed by "ton sabbaton" seems rather naturally anaphoric.
Thanks.
David Lim
Posts: 901
Joined: June 6th, 2011, 6:55 am

Re: Luke 23:54, 56

Post by David Lim »

anthonybuzzard wrote:Would you please comment on Luke 23:54 and 56. In 54 we have the anarthrous SABBATON and in 56 we have the definite article which I presume is anaphoric. In other words "the Sabbath" in verse 56 is that Sabbath, the one mentioned without the article in verse 54. Would you concur?
Thank you.
I also think it is not an anaphoric article because generally omission of the article like in Luke 23:54 is allowed when the context makes it clear that only one thing is being referred to. Notice that "ἡμέρα" is also anarthous but it is clear it is referring to "the day" of which the author is currently speaking, the day after which being "the sabbath after". Therefore verses 54 and 56 are simply referring to the same sabbath, rather than one to another.
δαυιδ λιμ
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