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Mark 16:12

Posted: December 15th, 2021, 3:01 am
by Jean Putmans
Mk 16:12 has περιπατουσιν as well as πορευομενοισ

μετα δε ταυτα δυσιν εξ αυτων περιπατουσιν εφανερωθη εν ετερα μορφη πορευομενοισ εισ αγρον.

A look in Bible Hub showed, some bible-translations omit the translation of one of the two words:

New International Version
Afterward Jesus appeared in a different form to two of them while they were walking in the country.
New Living Translation
Afterward he appeared in a different form to two of his followers who were walking from Jerusalem into the country.
English Standard Version
After these things he appeared in another form to two of them, as they were walking into the country.
Berean Study Bible
After this, Jesus appeared in a different form to two of them as they walked along in the country.


Most have translated them both, be it, that they often change the verb into someting else:

Berean Literal Bible
And after these things, He appeared in another form to two of them as they are walking, going into the country.
King James Bible
After that he appeared in another form unto two of them, as they walked, and went into the country.
New King James Version
After that, He appeared in another form to two of them as they walked and went into the country.

New American Standard Bible
Now after that, He appeared in a different form to two of them while they were walking along on their way to the country.
NASB 1995
After that, He appeared in a different form to two of them while they were walking along on their way to the country.
NASB 1977
And after that, He appeared in a different form to two of them, while they were walking along on their way to the country.
Amplified Bible
After that, He appeared in a different form to two of them as they were walking along the way to the country.[/i]

Is the omission of one of the two words in some translations ok (which would probably mean, the other being redundant)?

(NB: just 6 out of about 500 Mss omit περιπατουσιν, so do the Gothic and the Coptic North),

Re: Mark 16:12

Posted: December 15th, 2021, 7:21 am
by Jason Hare
The repetition does seem kinda redundant.

Why, by the way, do you not use final sigma (as in εισ instead of εἰς)?

Re: Mark 16:12

Posted: December 15th, 2021, 10:44 am
by Jean Putmans
Final σ :
A couple of years ago I downloaded the NA28-File from the INTF-Website. They then had changed the final-ς into the final -σ.
I have my own "home-made" concordance system to select Verses from NA, RP, Gothic and Vulgate-Jerome. Since the Linux-Scripts (that I use on a MacPro 2010) don't treat σ and ς as one sign, it's easier in search-scripts to have all ς/σ identical. So I then choose to stop using -σ and in all positions Ι now have σ.This makes it possible to search for words with for final and non-final σ/ς in one run.

And now I am completely used to the final σ (being in line with Tischendorf, by the way).