John 21 ἀγαπάω / φιλέω

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Please quote the Greek text you are discussing directly in your post if it is reasonably short - do not ask people to look it up. This is not a beginner's forum, competence in Greek is assumed.

Re: John 21 ἀγαπάω / φιλέω

Postby Shirley Rollinson » May 22nd, 2013, 7:50 pm

Jason Hare wrote:Carl,

Do you think there is any significance as to a distinction between ἀγαπῶ and φιλῶ when it is pointed out that only when Jesus asked Peter if he loved him (with φιλῶ) did he become offended. He wasn't offended either time when he asked him if he loved him (with ἀγαπῶ). Do you think there's no significance to this at all? Just curious.


A further complication is - Were they speaking in Greek? Or in Aramaic?
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Re: John 21 ἀγαπάω / φιλέω

Postby Alan Patterson » May 23rd, 2013, 9:30 am

Shirley,

Why would it matter what language they spoke? I've often wondered about this. I don't think we have an issue with translational Greek (like the LXX) here, do you? Regardless of what language Christ and Simon were conversing in, the author here is portraying, to a largely Greek speaking world, the events in Greek and he would be using the Greek language to communicate what he wanted his readers to understand. I think it would be sheer speculation anytime someone tried to figure out what the verbal language was that was spoken, and make an interpretation based on that. Please enlighten me on your reasons for such an option. I remain open to such an idea, but I've not come across any good argument/explanation of this.
χαρις υμιν και ειρηνη,
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Re: John 21 ἀγαπάω / φιλέω

Postby MAubrey » May 23rd, 2013, 10:46 am

Alan Patterson wrote:Why would it matter what language they spoke? I've often wondered about this. I don't think we have an issue with translational Greek (like the LXX) here, do you? Regardless of what language Christ and Simon were conversing in, the author here is portraying, to a largely Greek speaking world, the events in Greek and he would be using the Greek language to communicate what he wanted his readers to understand. I think it would be sheer speculation anytime someone tried to figure out what the verbal language was that was spoken, and make an interpretation based on that. Please enlighten me on your reasons for such an option. I remain open to such an idea, but I've not come across any good argument/explanation of this.

+1

I'm definitely with Alan on this one.
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Canada Institute of Linguistics & Trinity Western University Graduate School
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